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CCNA4 Final Exam (v5.03) 2015-2016

Friday, April 29, 2016

1. Which two statements about DSL are true? (Choose two.)

users are on a shared medium

uses RF signal transmission

local loop can be up to 3.5 miles (5.5km)*

physical and data link layers are defined by DOCSIS

user connections are aggregated at a DSLAM located at the CO*

 

2. Which two statements are true regarding a PPP connection between two Cisco routers? (Choose two.)

LCP tests the quality of the link.*

LCP manages compression on the link.*

Only a single NCP is allowed between the two routers.

NCP terminates the link when data exchange is complete.

With CHAP authentication, the routers exchange plain text passwords.

 

3. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP can only supply five public IP addresses for this network. What technology can the administrator use to accomplish this task?

classful subnetting

variable length subnet masks

classless interdomain routing

port-based Network Address Translation*

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring NAT to provide Internet access to the inside network. After the configuration is completed, users are unable to access the Internet. What is the cause of the problem?

The NAT pool is using an invalid address range.

The inside and outside interfaces are backwards.

The ACL is referencing the wrong network address.

The NAT inside source command is referring to the wrong ACL.*

 

5. What is the expected behavior of an ADSL service?

The download rate is faster than the upload rate.*

The upload rate is faster than the download rate.

The download and upload rates are the same.

The user can select the upload and download rates based on need.

 

6. A network administrator is troubleshooting the dynamic NAT that is configured on router R2. Which command can the administrator use to see the total number of active NAT translations and the number of addresses that are allocated from the NAT pool?

R2# show ip nat statistics*

R2# show ip nat translations

R2# show running-config

R2# clear ip nat translation

 

7. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec*

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

 

8. Refer to the exhibit. The inside local IP address of PC-A is 192.168.0.200. What will be the inside global address of packets from PC-A after they are translated by R1?

10.0.0.1

172.16.0.1

192.168.0.1

192.168.0.200

209.165.200.225*

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of NAT is being configured on R1?

PAT

dynamic NAT

NAT overload

port forwarding*

 

10. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

 

11. What are three benefits of using Frame Relay for WAN connectivity? (Choose three.)

QoS support using the IP precedence field

one physical interface that can be used for several circuits*

integrated encryption

mature technology*

reasonable cost*

seamless direct connectivity to an Ethernet LAN

 

12. The DLCI number assigned to a Frame Relay circuit is to be manually added on a point-to-point link. Which three subinterface commands could be used to complete the configuration? (Choose three.)

bandwidth kilobits*

encapsulation frame-relay

frame-relay interface-dlci dlci*

frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci

frame-relay map ip ip-address dlci broadcast

ip address ip-address mask*

no shutdown

 

13. Which command can be used to check the information about congestion on a Frame Relay link?

show frame-relay pvc*

show frame-relay lmi

show interfaces

show frame-relay map

 

14. A network administrator is configuring a PPP link with the commands:

R1(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
R1(config-if)# ppp quality 70

What is the effect of these commands?

The PPP link will be closed down if the link quality drops below 70 percent.*

The NCP will send a message to the sending device if the link usage reaches 70 percent.

The LCP establishment phase will not start until the bandwidth reaches 70 percent or more.

The PPP link will not be established if more than 30 percent of options cannot be accepted.

 

15. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has implemented the configuration in the displayed output. What is missing from the configuration that would be preventing OSPF routing updates from passing to the Frame Relay service provider?

The passive-interface command has not been issued on interface serial 0/1/0.

The broadcast keyword has not been issued.*

The directly connected neighbor should have been identified by using static mapping.

The command to disable split horizon has not been issued.

 

16. What is a characteristic of Frame Relay that allows customer data transmissions to dynamically “burst” over their CIR for short periods of time?

The combination of LMI status messages and Inverse ARP messages enables the CIR to be exceeded.

The physical circuits of the Frame Relay network are shared between subscribers and there may be times when unused bandwidth is available.*

Bursting is enabled by the configuration of multiple subinterfaces on one physical interface.

BECN and FECN messages notify the router that the CIR can be exceeded.

 

17. Which broadband technology would be best for a small office that requires fast upstream connections?

DSL

fiber-to-the-home*

cable

WiMax

 

18. What is the protocol that provides ISPs the ability to send PPP frames over DSL networks?

PPPoE*

CHAP

ADSL

LTE

 

19. Which technology requires the use of PPPoE to provide PPP connections to customers?

dialup analog modem

dialup ISDN modem

DSL*

T1

 

20. Why is it useful to categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer.

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.

A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is known.

The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

 

21. Why is it useful to categorize networks by size when discussing network design?

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many multilayer switches will be necessary at the core layer.

Knowing the number of connected devices will define how many additional layers will be added to the three-tier hierarchical network design.

A high-level redundancy at the access layer may be better implemented if the number of connected devices is known.

The complexity of networking infrastructure will vary according to the number of connected devices.*

 

22. A company connects to one ISP via multiple connections. What is the name given to this type of connection?

single-homed

multihomed

dual-multihomed

dual-homed*

 

23. What is one advantage to designing networks in building block fashion for large companies?

failure isolation*

increased network access time

coarse security control

fewer required physical resources

 

24. Which network module maintains the resources that employees, partners, and customers rely on to effectively create, collaborate, and interact with information?

access-distribution

services

data center*

enterprise edge

 

25. A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

arp -a

ipconfig*

nslookup*

ping*

telnet

tracert

netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor

 

26. A team of engineers has identified a solution to a significant network problem. The proposed solution is likely to affect critical network infrastructure components. What should the team follow while implementing the solution to avoid interfering with other processes and infrastructure?

change-control procedures*

one of the layered troubleshooting approaches

knowledge base guidelines

syslog messages and reports

 

27. Which troubleshooting tool would a network administrator use to check the Layer 2 header of frames that are leaving a particular host?

protocol analyzer*

baselining tool

knowledge base

CiscoView

 

28. Which two specialized troubleshooting tools can monitor the amount of traffic that passes through a switch? (Choose two.)

TDR

digital multimeter

NAM*

portable network analyzer*

DTX cable analyzer

 

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements describe the results of entering these commands? (Choose two.)

R1 will send system messages of levels 0 (emergencies) to level 4 (warnings) to a server.*

R1 will not send critical system messages to the server until the command debug all is entered.

R1 will reset all the warnings to clear the log.

R1 will output the system messages to the local RAM.

The syslog server has the IPv4 address 192.168.10.10.*

 

30. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

The connectivity between these two hosts allows for videoconferencing calls.

There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1.*

The average transmission time between the two hosts is 2 miliseconds.

This host does not have a default gateway configured.

 

31. Which statement is a characteristic of SNMP MIBs?

The MIB organizes variables in a flat manner.

The SNMP agent uses the SNMP manager to access information within the MIB.

The NMS must have access to the MIB in order for SNMP to operate properly.*

The MIB structure for a given device includes only variables that are specific to that device or vendor.

 

32. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were issued:

R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL
R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host 192.168.1.3 version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit 192.168.10.3

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.

There is a problem with the ACL configuration.*

The snmp-server location command is missing.

 

33. What is used as the default event logging destination for Cisco routers and switches?

terminal line

syslog server

console line*

workstation

 

34. In the data gathering process, which type of device will listen for traffic, but only gather traffic statistics?

NMS

syslog server

NetFlow collector*

SNMP agent

 

35. Which SNMP message type informs the network management system (NMS) immediately of certain specified events?

GET request

SET request

GET response

Trap*

 

36. Which three flows associated with consumer applications are supported by NetFlow collectors? (Choose three.)

bandwidth regulation

accounting*

billing*

quality of service

error correction

network monitoring*

 

37. Which algorithm is considered insecure for use in IPsec encryption?

3DES*

AES

RSA

SHA-1

 

38. Which statement describes a characteristic of dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM)?

It supports the SONET standard, but not the SDH standard.

It enables bidirectional communications over one pair of copper cables.

It can be used in long-range communications, like connections between ISPs.*

It assigns incoming electrical signals to specific frequencies.

 

39. Two corporations have just completed a merger. The network engineer has been asked to connect the two corporate networks without the expense of leased lines. Which solution would be the most cost effective method of providing a proper and secure connection between the two corporate networks?

Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client with SSL

Cisco Secure Mobility Clientless SSL VPN

Frame Relay

remote access VPN using IPsec

site-to-site VPN*

 

40. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is configured on the physical interface of the CORP router?

10.1.1.1

10.1.1.2

209.165.202.133*

209.165.202.134

 

41. What are three characteristics of the generic routing encapsulation (GRE) protocol? (Choose three.)

GRE tunnels support multicast traffic.*

By default, GRE does not include any flow control mechanisms.*

Developed by the IETF, GRE is a secure tunneling protocol that was designed for Cisco routers.

GRE uses AES for encryption unless otherwise specified.

GRE creates additional overhead for packets that are traveling through the VPN.*

GRE provides encapsulation for a single protocol type that is traveling through the VPN.

 

42. Which WAN technology can serve as the underlying network to carry multiple types of network traffic such as IP, ATM, Ethernet, and DSL?

ISDN

MPLS*

Frame Relay

Ethernet WAN

 

43. Which two statements describe remote access VPNs? (Choose two.)

Remote access VPNs are used to connect entire networks, such as a branch office to headquarters.

End users are not aware that VPNs exists.

A leased line is required to implement remote access VPNs.

Client software is usually required to be able to access the network.*

Remote access VPNs support the needs of telecommuters and mobile users.*

 

44. Which circumstance would result in an enterprise deciding to implement a corporate WAN?

when its employees become distributed across many branch locations*

when the network will span multiple buildings

when the number of employees exceeds the capacity of the LAN

when the enterprise decides to secure its corporate LAN

 

45. An intercity bus company wants to offer constant Internet connectivity to the users traveling on the buses. Which two types of WAN infrastructure would meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

private infrastructure

public infrastructure*

dedicated

circuit-switched

cellular*

 

46. Under which two categories of WAN connections does Frame Relay fit? (Choose two.)

public infrastructure

private infrastructure*

dedicated

Internet

packet-switched*

 

47. What term is used to identify the point where the customer network ends and the service provider network begins?

CSU/DSU

the central office

the local loop

the demarcation point*

 

48. Which two characteristics describe time-division multiplexing? (Choose two.)

Traffic is allocated bandwidth across a single wire based on preassigned time slots.*

Bandwidth is allocated to channels based on whether a station has data to transmit.

Encoding technology provides high data throughput in a minimum RF spectrum by supporting parallel data transmission.

Depending on the configured Layer 2 protocol, data is transmitted across two or more channels via the use of time slots.

Data capacity across a single link increases as bits from multiple sources are transmitted using interleaved slices of time.*

 

49. A branch office uses a leased line to connect to the corporate network. The lead network engineer confirms connectivity between users in the branch office, but none of the users can access corporate headquarters. System logs indicate that nothing has changed in the branch office network. What should the engineer consider next to resolve this network outage?

The network technician for the branch office should troubleshoot the switched infrastructure.

The system administrator in the branch office should reconfigure the default gateway on the user PCs.

The server administrator in the branch office should reconfigure the DHCP server.

The service provider for the branch office should troubleshoot the issue starting from the point of demarcation.*

 

50. Refer to the exhibit. Which three steps are required to configure Multilink PPP on the HQ router? (Choose three.)

Assign the serial interfaces to the multilink bundle.*

Assign the Fast Ethernet interface to the multilink bundle.

Enable PPP encapsulation on the multilink interface.

Enable PPP encapsulation on the serial interfaces.*

Bind the multilink bundle to the Fast Ethernet interface.

Create and configure the multilink interface.*

 

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator discovers that host A is having trouble with Internet connectivity, but the server farm has full connectivity. In addition, host A has full connectivity to the server farm. What is a possible cause of this problem?

The router has an incorrect gateway.

Host A has an overlapping network address.

Host A has an incorrect default gateway configured.

Host A has an incorrect subnet mask.

NAT is required for the host A network.*

 

52. Refer to the exhibit. H1 can only ping H2, H3, and the Fa0/0 interface of router R1. H2 and H3 can ping H4 and H5. Why might H1 not be able to successfully ping H4 and H5?

Router R1 does not have a route to the destination network.

Switch S1 does not have an IP address configured.

The link between router R1 and switch S2 has failed.

Host H1 does not have a default gateway configured.*

Hosts H4 and H5 are members of a different VLAN than host H1.

 

53. What is required for a host to use an SSL VPN to connect to a remote network device?

VPN client software must be installed.

A site-to-site VPN must be preconfigured.

A web browser must be installed on the host.*

The host must be connected to a wired network.

 

54. What type of information is collected by Cisco NetFlow?

interface errors

CPU usage

memory usage

traffic statistics*

 

55. Match the characteristic to the appropriate authentication protocol. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:
PAP Characteristics
uses two-way handshake
single challenge
weak authentication
clear text passwords

CHAP Characteristics
uses three-way handshake
repeated challenges
strong authentication
encrypted passwords



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Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Exam videos 2015-2016

Thursday, April 28, 2016

You can randomly take exam three type of Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Assessment. Before you take exam, you should make you which one is your topology type. From one to one topology, it’s different only device and host names. View video which one is your topology. Good luck !…

Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Assessment Type A

Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Assessment Type B

Chapter 6 PT Practice Skills Assessment Type C



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CCNA3 Final Exam (v5.03) 2015-2016

Thursday, April 28, 2016

1. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.

The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*

This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.

This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.

 

2. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

ability to build a routing table*

ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput

ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself

ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

 

3. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

broadcast traffic containment

failover capability

forwarding rate*

port density*

Power over Ethernet*

speed of convergence

 

4. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

connect remote networks*

provide Power over Ethernet to devices

connect users to the network

provide data traffic security*

provide a high-speed network backbone

 

5. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

4096

32768

61440*

65535

 

6. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

S1

S2*

S3

S4

 

7. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

alternate, root, designated, root

designated, root, alternate, root

alternate, designated, root, root*

designated, alternate, root, root

 

8. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.

Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.

Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*

Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.

S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.

S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.*

S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.

 

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

MAC address of the forwarding router

MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers

MAC address of the standby router

MAC address of the virtual router*

 

11. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*

It is nonproprietary.

It uses a virtual router master.

It works together with VRRP.

 

12. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

HSRP uses active and standby routers.*

It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.

It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.

HSRP is nonproprietary.

 

13. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches*

 

14. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

SW1: on
SW2: on*

SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches

SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches

SW1: passive
SW2: active

 

15. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

on*

desirable

active

auto*

passive

 

16. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.

All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*

All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*

All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.

Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

The EtherChannel is down.*

The port channel ID is 2.*

The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.

The bundle is fully operational.

The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

 

18. What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.*

At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.

The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*

The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.

The APs must use different cluster names.

 

19. A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.

Add another access point.*

Upgrade the access point to one that can route.

Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.

 

20. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

ad hoc mode*

hotspot

infrastructure mode

mixed mode

 

21. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

sending an ARP request

delivering a broadcast frame

transmitting a probe request*

initiating a three-way handshake

receiving a broadcast beacon frame*

 

22. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?

network

open*

passive

shared-key

 

23. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

WPA

WEP

WPA2 with TKIP

WPA2 with AES*

 

24. Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.*

Change the authentication method on the AP.

Switch to an 802.11g AP.

Set the AP to mixed mode.

 

25. A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)

ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE*

area 1 authentication message-digest

username OSPF password 1C34dE

enable password 1C34dE

area 0 authentication message-digest*

 

26. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.

R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.

The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.

R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*

R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

 

27. What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose two.)

Use only OSPFv3.

Use MD5 authentication.*

Use the enable secret command.

When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.

Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to end-user devices.*

 

28. A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:

1.that all interfaces have correct addressing

2.that the routing process has been globally configured

3.that correct router adjacencies have formed

What additional action taken on ​R3 could solve the problem?

Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.*

Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.

Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.

Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.

 

29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*

The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.

The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.

The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.

 

30. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

when the router has interfaces in different areas*

when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator

when the router has the highest router ID

when the router has an OSPF priority of 0

 

31. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?

type 1

type 2

type 3

type 4

type 5*

 

32. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.

This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*

This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

 

33. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.

Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*

ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*

Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.

Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

 

34. Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*

The OSPF routing process is inactive.

The link to the new area is down.

The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.

 

35. When are EIGRP update packets sent?

only when necessary*

when learned routes age out

every 5 seconds via multicast

every 30 seconds via broadcast

 

36. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

The packets are sent in response to hello packets.

The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.

The packets are sent as unicast.*

The packets require confirmation.

The packets are unreliable.*

 

37. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63*

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63

B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255

 

38. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?

as the autonomous system number*

as the number of neighbors supported by this router

as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor

as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router

 

39. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

show ip protocols

show running-config

show interfaces*

show ip route

 

40. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

delay*

MTU

reliability

transmit and receive load

bandwidth*

 

41. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*

The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.

The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.

The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.*

Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.

 

42. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

when the EIGRP domain is converged

when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network

when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network

when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available*

 

43. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

the 32-bit router ID

the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface

the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address

the interface IPv6 link-local address*

 

44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.

R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.*

The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.

If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

 

45. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?​

10.0.0.0/8*

10.1.0.0/16

10.1.0.0/28

10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28​

 

46. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?

2

4*

16

32

 

47. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

on a per-packet basis

on a per-interface basis

on a per-path-load basis

on a per-destination basis*

 

48. Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?

The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.

A username and password must be configured.

The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.*

The CiscoVille router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.

 

49. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes

when a router has more than three active interfaces

when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*

when a router has less than five active interfaces

when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

 

50. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.

What action should be taken to solve this problem?

Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.

Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.

Configure the same hello interval between the routers.

Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.*

 

51. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.

Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.

Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.

Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*

Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.*

 

52. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

The FTP server is operational.

The old IOS image file has been deleted.

There is sufficient space in flash memory.*

The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

 

53. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?

show license all

ping 10.10.10.1

copy tftp: flash0:

ping 10.10.10.2*

 

54. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.*

It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.

It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.

It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

 

55. Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

IPBase*

DATA

Unified Communications

Security

 

56. A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.

The features in the Security package are available immediately.

The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.

The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.*

 

57. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

License Type: ipbasek9

License Type: Permanent*

License Type: Temporary

License State: Active, In Use*

License State: Active, Registered

License State: On

 

58. Fill in the blank.

The​​​ ​​ __backbone__  area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

 

59. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64

60. Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when backing up a Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)

RouterA# -> copy flash0:tftp:

Source Filename? -> C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin

Address or name of remote host ->2001:DB8:CAFE:100::9

 



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CCNA2 Final Exam (v5.03) 2015-2016

Thursday, April 28, 2016

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.

No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.

The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.

The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.*

 

2. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

ip dhcp pool

ip address dhcp*

service dhcp

ip helper-address

 

3. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​

a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​*

a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​

 

4. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.

R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​

The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.

The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.*

 

5. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5

ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225

ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365**

ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365

No additional configuration is necessary.

 

6. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

There is no end-to-end addressing.*

The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​

The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.

The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

 

7. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

Telnet

IPsec*

HTTP

ICMP

DNS

 

8. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.

It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.

It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.*

It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

 

9. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

R1 Gi0/1.12*

R1 S0/0/0

R2 S0/0/1

R2 Gi0/1.20

inbound

outbound*

 

10. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

destination MAC address

ICMP message type*

computer type

source TCP hello address

destination UDP port number*

 

11. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN

in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server

in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN

in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device*

 

12. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

access list number between 1 and 99

access list number between 100 and 199*

default gateway address and wildcard mask

destination address and wildcard mask*

source address and wildcard mask*

source subnet mask and wildcard mask

destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

 

13. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

0.0.0.127

0.0.0.255

0.0.1.255*

0.0.255.255

A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

 

14. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

access-class 5 in*

access-list 5 deny any

access-list standard VTY
permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127

access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31*

ip access-group 5 out

ip access-group 5 in

 

15. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

permit ip any any

permit ip any host ip_address

permit icmp any any nd-na*

deny ip any any

 

16. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.*

It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.

It has an administrative distance of 1.

It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

 

17. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

The ip route command was used.

The ipv6 route command was used.

Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.*

The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

 

18. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.

IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.

IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.

IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.*

 

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

child route

ultimate route

default route

level 1 parent route*

 

20. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

scalability*

ISP selection

speed of convergence*

the autonomous system that is used

campus backbone architecture

 

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

directly attached static route

recursive static route*

fully specified static route

floating static route

 

22. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200*

ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100

ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

 

23. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0*

ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

 

24. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

1

2

3*

4

 

25. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.

OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.

OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.*

 

26. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.

They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.

They request more information about their databases.

They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.*

 

27. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.

Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.

Cost equals bandwidth.

A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.*

 

28. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

the link router interface IP address and subnet mask*

the type of network link*

the link next-hop IP address

the link bandwidth

the cost of that link*

 

29. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.*

The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.*

The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.

The link interface subnet masks must match.*

The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

 

30. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

RouterA(config)# router ospf 0

RouterA(config)# router ospf 1*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0*

RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

 

31. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.

Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.*

Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.*

The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.

Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

 

32. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding*

to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows

to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly

to determine which ports are functioning

 

33. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

switchport mode access
switchport port-security

switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict**

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky

switchport mode access
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation protect

 

34. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.

A cable has not been attached to the port.*

The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.

There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

 

35. What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.

An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.

NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.

A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.

Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.*

 

36. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.

The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.*

All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.

Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

 

37. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable*

dynamic auto – dynamic auto

dynamic desirable – dynamic auto*

dynamic desirable – trunk*

access – trunk

access – dynamic auto

 

38. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

Change the native VLAN on both ports.

Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.

Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.*

Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.

Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.*

 

39. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk**

Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

 

40. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.*

This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.*

 

41. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

Switch(config)# no vlan 100*

 

42. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.*

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

 

43. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

All devices in all VLANs see the frame.

Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.

Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.*

Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

 

44. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.

There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.

The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​*

The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

 

45. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.*

The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.

The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

 

46. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1*

R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

 

47. Fill in the blank.

In IPv6, all routes are level​​ __1__ ultimate routes.

 

48. Fill in the blank.

Static routes are configured by the use of the __ip route__ global configuration command.

 

49. Fill in the blank.

The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ​ __Hello__ packet.

 

50. Fill in the blank.

The default administrative distance for a static route is __1__ .

 

51. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)


Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbors on directly connected networks. > step 2

Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link > step 3

Each router learns about its own directly connected networks. > step 1

Each router increments the hop count for the destination network. -> NOT SCORED

Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database > step 4

Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best > step 5

52. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

the source MAC address and the incoming port*

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

 

53. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains

5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains*

5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

 

54. What is a function of the distribution layer?

fault isolation

network access to the user

high-speed backbone connectivity

interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets*

55. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

borderless switching

cut-through switching

ingress port buffering

store-and-forward switching*



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CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills Exam VIDEOS 2015-2016

Thursday, April 28, 2016

CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills Exam Type A

CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills Exam Type B

CCNA 1 PT Practice Skills Exam Type C

 

 

 



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CCNA1 V5.1 Practice Final Exam 2015-2016

Tuesday, April 26, 2016

1. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

Internet

intranet

extranet*

extendednet

 

2. A small business user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

DSL*

dial-up

satellite

cell modem

cable modem

 

3. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

The administrator is already in global configuration mode.

The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.*

The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

 

4. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

Ctrl-Shift-X

Ctrl-Shift-6*

Ctrl-Z

Ctrl-C

 

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

letmein

secretin

lineconin

linevtyin*

 

6. A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?

This command encrypts passwords as they are transmitted across serial WAN links.

This command prevents someone from viewing the running configuration passwords.*

This command enables a strong encryption algorithm for the enable secret password command.

This command automatically encrypts passwords in configuration files that are currently stored in NVRAM.

This command provides an exclusive encrypted password for external service personnel who are required to do router maintenance.

 

7. What is the purpose of the SVI on a Cisco switch?

The SVI provides a physical interface for remote access to the switch.

The SVI provides a faster method for switching traffic between ports on the switch.

The SVI adds Layer 4 connectivity between VLANs.

The SVI provides a virtual interface for remote access to the switch.*

 

8. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

duplex

unicast

multicast

broadcast*

 

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

POP

BOOTP

ICMP*

IP*

PPP

 

10. What PDU is associated with the transport layer?

segment*

packet

frame

bits

 

11. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.

It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.

It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.*

 

12. What type of communication medium is used with a wireless LAN connection?

fiber

radio waves*

microwave

UTP

 

13. In addition to the cable length, what two factors could interfere with the communication carried over UTP cables? (Choose two.)

crosstalk*

bandwidth

size of the network

signal modulation technique

electromagnetic interference*

 

14. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)

internet

physical

LLC*

transport

MAC*

network access

 

15. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

bus

hierarchical

mesh*

ring

star

 

16. What type of communication rule would best describe CSMA/CD?

access method*

flow control

message encapsulation

message encoding

 

17. If data is being sent over a wireless network, then connects to an Ethernet network, and eventually connects to a DSL connection, which header will be replaced each time the data travels through a network infrastructure device?

Layer 3

data link*

physical

Layer 4

 

18. What best describes the destination IPv4 address that is used by multicasting?

a single IP multicast address that is used by all destinations in a group*

an IP address that is unique for each destination in the group

a group address that shares the last 23 bits with the source IPv4 address

a 48 bit address that is determined by the number of members in the multicast group

 

19. In an Ethernet network, when a device receives a frame of 1200 bytes, what will it do?

drop the frame

process the frame as it is*

send an error message to the sending device

add random data bytes to make the frame 1518 bytes long and then forward it

 

20. What important information is examined in the Ethernet frame header by a Layer 2 device in order to forward the data onward?

source MAC address

source IP address

destination MAC address*

Ethernet type

destination IP address

 

21. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

It initiates an ARP request.

It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.

It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.

It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.*

 

22. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.*

An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.

When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.

If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.

If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.*

 

23. Which two services are required to enable a computer to receive dynamic IP addresses and access the Internet using domain names? (Choose two.)

DNS*

WINS

HTTP

DHCP*

SMTP

 

24. What is a basic characteristic of the IP protocol?

connectionless*

media dependent

user data segmentation

reliable end-to-end delivery

 

25. Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

::1/128

fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128*

fe80::/64

2001:0:9d38:6ab8:30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128

 

26. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.

FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS​.

RAM is volatile and stores the IP routing table.*

NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.

ROM is nonvolatile and contains basic diagnostic software.*

 

27. What three blocks of addresses are defined by RFC 1918 for private network use? (Choose three.)

10.0.0.0/8*

172.16.0.0/12*

192.168.0.0/16

100.64.0.0/14

169.254.0.0/16

239.0.0.0/8

 

28. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234*

2001:DB8:0:AB::1234

2001:DB8::AB00::1234

2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

 

29. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

link-local*

unique local

site local

global unicast

 

30. An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?​

all IPv6 enabled devices across the network​

all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link​

all IPv6 DHCP servers​

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​*

 

31. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

to inform routers about network topology changes

to ensure the delivery of an IP packet

to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions*

to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

 

32. Which statement describes a characteristic of the traceroute utility?

It sends four Echo Request messages.

It utilizes the ICMP Source Quench messages.

It is primarily used to test connectivity between two hosts.

It identifies the routers in the path from a source host to a destination host.*

 

33. What is the usable number of host IP addresses on a network that has a /26 mask?

256

254

64

62*

32

16

 

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

172.16.16.255

172.16.20.255

172.16.19.255*

172.16.23.255

172.16.255.255

 

35. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/29*

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.144/28
10.1.1.160/28

10.1.1.128/28
10.1.1.140/28
10.1.1.158/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.144/26
10.1.1.160/26

10.1.1.128/26
10.1.1.140/26
10.1.1.158/28

 

36. Given IPv6 address prefix 2001:db8::/48, what will be the last subnet that is created if the subnet prefix is changed to /52?

2001:db8:0:f00::/52

2001:db8:0:8000::/52

2001:db8:0:f::/52

2001:db8:0:f000::/52*

 

37. A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination port number utilized by each application.

The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number utilized by each application.*

The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address used by the PC of the technician.

The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address used by the PC of the technician.

 

38. What three services are provided by the transport layer? (Choose three.)

flow control*

encryption of data

path determination

connection establishment*

error recovery*

bit transmission

data representation

 

39. An Internet television transmission is using UDP. What happens when part of the transmission is not delivered to the destination?

A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.

The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.

The entire transmission is re-sent.

The transmission continues without the missing portion.*

 

40. Which two OSI model layers are considered to be included in the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack? (Choose two.)

internet

network

presentation*

session*

transport

 

41. An author is uploading one chapter document from a personal computer to a file server of a book publisher. What role is the personal computer assuming in this network model?

client*

master

server

slave

transient

 

42. Which two automatic addressing assignments are supported by DHCP? (Choose two.)

local server address

subnet mask*

default gateway address*

physical address of the recipient

physical address of the sender

 

43. When a network administrator is trying to manage network traffic on a growing network, when should traffic flow patterns be analyzed?

during times of peak utilization*

during off-peak hours

during employee holidays and weekends

during randomly selected times

 

44. What is the objective of a network reconnaissance attack?

discovery and mapping of systems*

unauthorized manipulation of data

disabling network systems or services

denying access to resources by legitimate users

 

45. What will be the result of failed login attempts if the following command is entered into a router?

login block-for 150 attempts 4 within 90

All login attempts will be blocked for 150 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 90 seconds.*

All login attempts will be blocked for 90 seconds if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

All login attempts will be blocked for 1.5 hours if there are 4 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

All login attempts will be blocked for 4 hours if there are 90 failed attempts within 150 seconds.

 

46. What is an advantage of storing configuration files to a USB flash drive instead of to a TFTP server?

The files can be saved without using terminal emulation software.

The transfer of the files does not rely on network connectivity.*

The USB flash drive is more secure.

The configuration files can be stored to a flash drive that uses any file system format.

 

47. Match the requirements of a reliable network with the supporting network architecture. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

Protect the network from unauthorized access. -> security
Provide redundant links and devices. -> fault tolerance
— not scored —
Expand the network without degrading the service for existing users. -> scalability
— not scored —

48. Match the descriptions to the terms. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
CLI -> users interact with the operating system by typing commands
GUI -> enables the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking
kernel -> the part of the OS that interacts directly with the device hardware
shell -> the part of the operating system that interfaces with applications and the user

49. Match the functions with the corresponding OSI layer. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

Application layer

HTTP and FTP
end user program functionality

Presentation layer

compression
common format

Session layer

dialog maintenance

50. Match the phases to the functions during the boot up process of a Cisco router . (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order.

— not scored —
locale and load the Cisco IOS software -> phase 2
locate and load the startup configuration file -> phase 3
perform the POST and load the bootstrap program -> phase 1



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