CCNA 3 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?

   • the 32-bit router ID
   • the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
   • the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
   • the interface IPv6 link-local address

2. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)

   • The packets are sent in response to hello packets.
   • The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
   • The packets are sent as unicast.
   • The packets require confirmation.
   • The packets are unreliable.

3. When are EIGRP update packets sent?

   • only when necessary
   • when learned routes age out
   • every 5 seconds via multicast
   • every 30 seconds via broadcast

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)

   • There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.
   • The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
   • The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
   • The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
   • Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?​

   • 10.0.0.0/8
   • 10.1.0.0/16
   • 10.1.0.0/28
   • 10.1.1.0/24 10.1.2.0/24 10.1.3.0/24 10.1.4.0/28​

6. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?

   • This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
   • This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.
   • This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
   • This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.

7. Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?

   • There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.
   • The OSPF routing process is inactive.
   • The link to the new area is down.
   • The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.

8. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?

   • when the router has interfaces in different areas
   • when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
   • when the router has the highest router ID
   • when the router has an OSPF priority of 0

9. What is a difference between the Cisco IOS 12 and IOS 15 versions?

   • The IOS 12 version has commands that are not available in the 15 version.
   • The IOS version 15 license key is unique to each device, whereas the IOS version 12 license key is not device specific.
   • Every Cisco ISR G2 platform router includes a universal image in the IOS 12 versions, but not the IOS 15 versions.
   • IOS version 12.4(20)T1 is a mainline release, whereas IOS version 15.1(1)T1 is a new feature release.

10. A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?

    • The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
    • The features in the Security package are available immediately.
    • The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
    • The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.

11. A network administrator is troubleshooting slow performance in a Layer 2 switched network. Upon examining the IP header, the administrator notices that the TTL value is not decreasing. Why is the TTL value not decreasing?

    • This is the normal behavior for a Layer 2 network.
    • The MAC address table is full.
    • The VLAN database is corrupt.
    • The inbound interface is set for half duplex.

12. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?

    • Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    • Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
    • Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
    • Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.

13. An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?

    • A response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.
    • Spanning tree should be disabled ​for that STP instance until the problem is located.
    • Broadcast traffic should be investigated and eliminated from the network.
    • Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.

14. A network engineer is configuring a LAN with a redundant first hop to make better use of the available network resources. Which protocol should the engineer implement?

    • FHRP
    • GLBP
    • HSRP
    • VRRP

15. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?

    • SW1: on SW2: on
    • SW1: desirable SW2: desirable
    • SW1: auto SW2: auto trunking enabled on both switches
    • SW1: auto SW2: auto PortFast enabled on both switches
    • SW1: passive SW2: active

16. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)

    • The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
    • All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.
    • All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.
    • All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
    • Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.

17. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?

    • when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
    • when a router has more than three active interfaces
    • when a network contains discontiguous network addresses
    • when a router has less than five active interfaces
    • when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM

18. What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)

    • Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.
    • At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
    • The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.
    • The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
    • The APs must use different cluster names.

19. A network engineer is troubleshooting a newly deployed wireless network that is using the latest 802.11 standards. When users access high bandwidth services such as streaming video, the wireless network performance is poor. To improve performance the network engineer decides to configure a 5 Ghz frequency band SSID and train users to use that SSID for streaming media services. Why might this solution improve the wireless network performance for that type of service?

    • The 5 GHz band has a greater range and is therefore likely to be interference-free.
    • Requiring the users to switch to the 5 GHz band for streaming media is inconvenient and will result in fewer users accessing these services.
    • The 5 GHz band has more channels and is less crowded than the 2.4 GHz band, which makes it more suited to streaming multimedia.
    • The only users that can switch to the 5 GHz band will be those with the latest wireless NICs, which will reduce usage.

20. What method of wireless authentication is dependent on a RADIUS authentication server?

    • WEP
    • WPA Personal
    • WPA2 Personal
    • WPA2 Enterprise

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two pieces of information could be determined by a network administrator from this output? (Choose two.)

    • R1 is participating in multiarea OSPF.
    • The OSPF process number that is being used is 0.
    • Interface Fa0/1 is not participating in the OSPF process.
    • R1 is the distribution point for the routers that are attached to the 10.0.0.4 network.
    • The metric that will be installed in the routing table for the 10.0.0.0 route will be 65 (64+1).

22. A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?

    • Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
    • Add another access point.
    • Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
    • Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.

23. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)

    • sending an ARP request
    • delivering a broadcast frame
    • transmitting a probe request
    • initiating a three-way handshake
    • receiving a broadcast beacon frame

24. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?

    • when the EIGRP domain is converged
    • when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
    • when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
    • when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available

25. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

    • ad hoc mode
    • hotspot
    • infrastructure mode
    • mixed mode

26. What is a wireless modulation technique used by 802.11 WLAN standards that can implement MIMO?

    • BSS
    • DSSS
    • FHSS
    • OFDM

27. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?

    • The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.
    • R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
    • The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
    • If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

28. A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:

    1.that all interfaces have correct addressing

    2.that the routing process has been globally configured

    3.that correct router adjacencies have formed

    What additional action taken on ​R3 could solve the problem?

    • Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.
    • Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.
    • Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
    • Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.

29. A network administrator in a branch office is configuring EIGRP authentication between the branch office router and the headquarters office router. Which security credential is needed for the authentication process?

    • a randomly generated key with the crypto key generate rsa command
    • the username and password configured on the headquarters office router
    • the hostname of the headquarters office router and a common password
    • a common key configured with the key-string command inside a key chain

30. For troubleshooting missing EIGRP routes on a router, what three types of information can be collected using the show ip protocols command? (Choose three.)

    • any interfaces that are enabled for EIGRP authentication
    • any interfaces on the router that are configured as passive
    • the IP addresses that are configured on adjacent routers
    • any ACLs that are affecting the EIGRP routing process
    • networks that are unadvertised by the EIGRP routing protocol
    • the local interface that is used to establish an adjacency with EIGRP neighbors

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

    • There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.
    • The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
    • The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
    • The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.

32. A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)

    • ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE
    • area 1 authentication message-digest
    • username OSPF password 1C34dE
    • enable password 1C34dE
    • area 0 authentication message-digest  

33. Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?

    • root port
    • non-designated port
    • designated port
    • disabled port

34. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?

    • dir flash:
    • ping 10.10.10.1
    • copy tftp: flash0:
    • ping 10.10.10.2

35. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?

    • 4096
    • 32768
    • 61440
    • 65535

36. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)

    • ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
    • Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.
    • ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.
    • Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.
    • Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)

    • S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.
    • S1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.
    • S3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
    • S2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
    • S2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)

    • The EtherChannel is down.
    • The port channel ID is 2.
    • The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
    • The bundle is fully operational.
    • The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.

39. Refer to the exhibit. Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/1 on S2, and Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S1 is connected to Interface FastEthernet 0/2 on S2. What are two errors in the present EtherChannel configurations? (Choose two.)

    • The trunk mode is not allowed for EtherChannel bundles.
    • Two auto modes cannot form a bundle.
    • Desirable mode is not compatible with on mode.
    • The channel group is inconsistent.
    • The interface port channel ID should be different in both switches.

40. Which technology is an open protocol standard that allows switches to automatically bundle physical ports into a single logical link?

    • Multilink PPP
    • DTP
    • LACP
    • PAgP

41. A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?

    • The EtherChannel will transition to a down state.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
    • The EtherChannel will remain functional.
    • Spanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.  

42. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the command output shown, what is the status of the EtherChannel?

    • The EtherChannel is dynamic and is using ports Fa0/10 and Fa0/11 as passive ports.
    • The EtherChannel is down as evidenced by the protocol field being empty.
    • The EtherChannel is partially functional as indicated by the P flags for the FastEthernet ports.
    • The EtherChannel is in use and functional as indicated by the SU and P flags in the command output.

43. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?

    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63
    • B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255  

44. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

    • R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
    • R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
    • The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
    • R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.
    • R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.

45. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?

    • MAC address of the forwarding router
    • MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
    • MAC address of the standby router
    • MAC address of the virtual router

46. If a company wants to upgrade a Cisco 2800 router from IOS 12.4T, what IOS should be recommended for a stable router platform?

    • 12.5T
    • 13.1T
    • 14.0
    • 15.1M

47. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?

    • It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.
    • It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
    • It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
    • It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.

48. What are two reasons to implement passive interfaces in the EIGRP configuration of a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

    • to provide increased network security
    • to shut down unused interfaces
    • to avoid unnecessary update traffic
    • to mitigate attacks coming from the interfaces
    • to exclude interfaces from load balancing

49. Fill in the blank.

    EIGRP keeps feasible successor routes in the       topology     table.

50. Fill in the blank.

    The       backbone      area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.

51. Fill in the blank. Use the acronym. Which encryption protocol is used by the WPA2 shared key authentication technique?​   AES

52. Match each OSPF LSA description with its type. (Not all options are used.)

53. Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when backing up Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)

54. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?

    • ability to build a routing table
    • ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
    • ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
    • ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)

55. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?

    • A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
    • The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
    • This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
    • This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single
    • network device.

56. Which action should be taken when planning for redundancy on a hierarchical network design?

    • immediately replace a non-functioning module, service or device on a network
    • continually purchase backup equipment for the network
    • implement STP portfast between the switches on the network
    • add alternate physical paths for data to traverse the network

57. Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?

    • the number of layers of the hierarchical network
    • the number of users on the access layer
    • the role of the malfunctioning device
    • the forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer

58. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)

    • broadcast traffic containment
    • failover capability
    • forwarding rate
    • port density
    • Power over Ethernet
    • speed of convergence

59. What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)

    • HTTP access to the device
    • a terminal emulation client
    • Telnet or SSH access to the device
    • a direct connection to the console or AUX port
    • a connection to an operational network interface on the device

60. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)

    • connect remote networks
    • provide Power over Ethernet to devices
    • connect users to the network
    • provide data traffic security
    • provide a high-speed network backbone

Updated 05 April 2015

1. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?

   

   CCNA3 Final Exam updated 001
   • S1
   • S2
   • S3
   • S4

2. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?

   

   CCNA3 Final Exam updated 002
   • alternate, root, designated, root
   • designated, root, alternate, root
   • alternate, designated, root, root
   • designated, alternate, root, root

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?

   

   CCNA3 Final Exam updated 003
   • S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.
   • S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.
   • S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.
   • S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.

4. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?

   • GLBP allows load balancing between routers.
   • It is nonproprietary.
   • It uses a virtual router master.
   • It works together with VRRP.

5. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?

   • HSRP uses active and standby routers.
   • It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
   • It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
   • HSRP is nonproprietary.

6. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

   • spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links
   • dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots
   • enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
   • creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches

7. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)

   • on
   • desirable
   • active
   • auto
   • passive

8. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?

   • network
   • open
   • passive
   • shared-key

9. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?

   • WPA
   • WEP
   • WPA2 with TKIP
   • WPA2 with AES

10. Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

    • Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.
    • Change the authentication method on the AP.
    • Switch to an 802.11g AP.
    • Set the AP to mixed mode.

11. What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose two.)

    • Use only OSPFv3.
    • Use MD5 authentication.
    • Use the enable secret command.
    • When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
    • Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to end-user devices.

12. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 004
    • There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.
    • The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
    • The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
    • The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.

13. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?

    • type 1
    • type 2
    • type 3
    • type 4
    • type 5

14. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?

    • as the autonomous system number
    • as the number of neighbors supported by this router
    • as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor
    • as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router

15. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?

    • show ip protocols
    • show running-config
    • show interfaces
    • show ip route

16. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)

    • delay
    • MTU
    • reliability
    • transmit and receive load
    • bandwidth

17. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?

    • 2
    • 4
    • 16
    • 32

18. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?

    • on a per-packet basis
    • on a per-interface basis
    • on a per-path-load basis
    • on a per-destination basis

19. Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 005
    • The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.
    • The same key number must be used on any EIGRP neighbor routers.
    • The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.
    • The CiscoVIlle router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 006
    • R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.​
    • The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.
    • The link-local address must be the same on both routers.
    • The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.​
    • The router ID must be the same on both routers.

21. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)

    • Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
    • Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
    • Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
    • Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.
    • Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.

22. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?

    • The FTP server is operational.
    • The old IOS image file has been deleted.
    • There is sufficient space in flash memory.
    • The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.

23. Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?

    • IPBase
    • DATA
    • Unified Communications
    • Security

24. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)

    • License Type: ipbasek9
    • License Type: Permanent
    • License Type: Temporary
    • License State: Active, In Use
    • License State: Active, Registered
    • License State: On

25. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)

    

    CCNA3 Final Exam updated 007
    
    
    

    CCNA3 Final Exam 0001

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CCNA 2 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?

   • The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
   • No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
   • The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
   • The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.

2. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?

   • ip dhcp pool
   • ip address dhcp
   • service dhcp
   • ip helper-address

3. Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?​

   • a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
   • a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message​
   • a DHCPREQUEST unicast message​
   • a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message​

4. Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?​

   • A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
   • R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.​
   • The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
   • The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

5. A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?

   • ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
   • ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
   • ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
     ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
   • ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443
     ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
   • No additional configuration is necessary.

6. What is a disadvantage of NAT?

   • There is no end-to-end addressing.
   • The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.​
   • The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
   • The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.​

7. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?

   • Telnet
   • IPsec
   • HTTP
   • ICMP
   • DNS

8. What benefit does NAT64 provide?

   • It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
   • It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
   • It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
   • It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

9. Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)

   • R1 Gi0/1.12
   • R1 S0/0/0
   • R2 S0/0/1
   • R2 Gi0/1.20
   • inbound
   • outbound

10. Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)

    • destination MAC address
    • ICMP message type
    • computer type
    • source TCP hello address
    • destination UDP port number

11. A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?

    • in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
    • in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
    • in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
    • in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device

12. Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)

    • access list number between 1 and 99
    • access list number between 100 and 199
    • default gateway address and wildcard mask
    • destination address and wildcard mask
    • source address and wildcard mask
    • source subnet mask and wildcard mask
    • destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

13. A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?

    • 0.0.0.127
    • 0.0.0.255
    • 0.0.1.255
    • 0.0.255.255
    • A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

14. The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)

    • access-class 5 in
    • access-list 5 deny any
    • access-list standard VTY
      permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
    • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
    • ip access-group 5 out
    • ip access-group 5 in

15. A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?

    • permit ip any any
    • permit ip any host ip_address
    • permit icmp any any nd-na
    • deny ip any any

16. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?

    • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
    • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
    • It has an administrative distance of 1.
    • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

17. Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?

    • The ip route command was used.
    • The ipv6 route command was used.
    • Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
    • The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

18. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?

    • IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
    • IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
    • IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
    • IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?

    • child route
    • ultimate route
    • default route
    • level 1 parent route

20. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)

    • scalability
    • ISP selection
    • speed of convergence
    • the autonomous system that is used
    • campus backbone architecture

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?

    • directly attached static route
    • recursive static route
    • fully specified static route
    • floating static route

22. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?

    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
    • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
    • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

23. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?

    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
    • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

24. Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?

    • 1
    • 2
    • 3
    • 4

25. Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?

    • OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
    • OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
    • OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
    • OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.

26. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?

    • They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
    • They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
    • They request more information about their databases.
    • They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.

27. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?

    • A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
    • Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
    • Cost equals bandwidth.
    • A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.

28. Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)

    • the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
    • the type of network link
    • the link next-hop IP address
    • the link bandwidth
    • the cost of that link

29. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

    • The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
    • The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
    • The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
    • The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
    • The link interface subnet masks must match.
    • The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

30. A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

    • RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
    • RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
    • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

31. What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

    • Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
    • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
    • Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
    • The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
    • Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

32. Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?

    • to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
    • to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
    • to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
    • to determine which ports are functioning

33. Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?

    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
      switchport port-security violation restrict
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
    • switchport mode access
      switchport port-security maximum 2
      switchport port-security mac-address sticky
      switchport port-security violation protect

34. Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?

    • An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
    • A cable has not been attached to the port.
    • The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
    • There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

35. What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state

    01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8.

    01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down

    • Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
    • An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
    • NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
    • A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
    • Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

36. While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?

    • All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
    • The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
    • All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
    • Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.​

37. Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)

    • dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
    • dynamic auto – dynamic auto
    • dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
    • dynamic desirable – trunk
    • access – trunk
    • access – dynamic auto

38. What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)

    • Change the native VLAN on both ports.
    • Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
    • Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
    • Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
    • Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.

39. A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?

    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
    • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
      Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

40. Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

    • Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
    • The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
    • This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
    • High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
    • The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.
      

41. On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

    • Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
    • Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
    • Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
    • Switch(config)# no vlan 100

42. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

    • The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
    • The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
    • A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
    • The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

43. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?

    • All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
    • Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
    • Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
    • Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

44. Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?

    • A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
    • There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
    • The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.​
    • The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.​

45. What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?

    • The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
    • The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
    • The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
    • The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

46. Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?

    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
    • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

47. Fill in the blank.

    In IPv6, all routes are level​​                1            ultimate routes.

48. Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the         ip route              global configuration command.

49. Fill in the blank.

    The OSPF Type 1 packet is the ​            Hello                  packet.

50. Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is       1        .

51. Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)

    • 

52. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?

    • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
    • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
    • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
    • the source MAC address and the incoming port
    • the source MAC address and the outgoing port

53. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?

    • 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
    • 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
    • 5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
    • 16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

54. What is a function of the distribution layer?

    • fault isolation
    • network access to the user
    • high-speed backbone connectivity
    • interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

55. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

    • borderless switching
    • cut-through switching
    • ingress port buffering
    • store-and-forward switching

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CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)-Updated 06 April 2015 (44 new question)

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

• wiki
• e-mail
• weblog
• instant messaging

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

• DSL
• dial-up
• satellite
• cell modem
• cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

• LAN
• MAN
• WAN
• WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• flash memory
• NVRAM?
• RAM
• ROM
• a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

• The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
• The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
• The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
• The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

• to restart the ping process
• to interrupt the ping process
• to exit to a different configuration mode
• to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

• It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
• It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
• It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
• It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

• My Switch(config)#?
• Switch(config)#?
• MySwitch(config)#?
• My(config)#?
• Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

• letmein
• secretin
• lineconin
• linevtyin

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

• The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
• The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
• The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
• The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

• PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
• PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
• PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
• PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

• 0.0.0.0
• 0.0.0.1
• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.1.1
• 255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• NAT
• PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

• ARP
• BOOTP
• ICMP
• IP
• PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

• Request for Comments
• IRTF research papers
• protocol models
• IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

• IP address
• default gateway address
• MAC address
• logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

• ARP, multicast
• DNS, unicast
• DNS, broadcast
• ARP, broadcast
• PING, multicast
• PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

• The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
• The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
• The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
• The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
• A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

• It accepts frames from the physical media.
• It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
• It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
• It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

• requiring proper grounding connections
• twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
• wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
• designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
• avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

• Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
• Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
• Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
• Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
• Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

• logical address
• physical address
• data
• error detection

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

• the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
• the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
• crossover Ethernet cable connection
• the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
• the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

• just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
• just the PC0 MAC address
• PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
• just the PC1 MAC address
• just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

• A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
• An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.
• A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
• A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

• to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
• to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
• to convert a URL name into an IP address
• to provide secure Internet file transfer
• to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

• ARP
• DNS
• NAT
• SMB
• DHCP
• HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

• It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
• It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
• It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
• It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

• ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
• FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
• RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.
• NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
• ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

• NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
• NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
• setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
• TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
• flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

• 10.172.168.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.20.4.4
• 192.168.5.254
• 224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

• to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
• to enable the router as an IPv6 router
• to permit only unicast packets on the router
• to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

• FEC0::/10?
• FDFF::/7?
• FEBF::/10?
• FF00::/8

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

• to inform routers about network topology changes
• to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
• to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
• to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

• The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
• The default gateway address in incorrect.
• The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
• The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

• 192.168.1.64/26
• 192.168.1.32/27
• 192.168.1.32/28
• 192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

• random static addresses to improve security
• addresses from different subnets for redundancy
• predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
• dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

• Site 1
• Site 2
• Site 3
• Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

• /62
• /64
• /66
• /68
• /70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

• DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPOFFER
• DHCPREQUEST
• DHCPACK
• DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

• to require users to prove who they are
• to determine which resources a user can access
• to keep track of the actions of a user
• to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

• exec-timeout 30
• service password-encryption
• banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
• login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

• ipconfig /all
• arp -a
• ipconfig /displaydns
• nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

• 192.168.9.254
• 192.168.10.1
• 192.168.10.2
• 192.168.11.252
• 192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 010 (v5.02, 2015)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

• broadcast SSID
• MAC filtering enabled
• WEP encryption enabled
• PSK authentication required
• default administrator password

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

• media
• wireless NIC
• custom adapter
• crossover cable
• wireless bridge
• wireless client software

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

…

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

• when a cellular telephone provides the service
• when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
• when a satellite dish is used
• when a regular telephone line is used

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

• audio conference, database, HTTP
• database, HTTP, audio conference
• audio conference, HTTP, database
• database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

• RAM
• flash
• NVRAM
• disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

• Ctrl-Shift-X
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z
• Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 012 (v5.02, 2015)

• HR Switch(config)#?
• Switch(config)#?
• HRSwitch(config)#?
• HR(config)#?
• Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

• The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
• The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
• The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
• The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

• FastEthernet0/1
• VLAN 1
• vty 0
• console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

• the TCP/IP stack on a network host
• connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
• connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
• connectivity between two PCs on the same network
• physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 013 (v5.02, 2015)

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

• switch
• hub
• router
• host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

• the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
• the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
• the type of traffic that is crossing the network
• the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
• the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
• the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

• It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
• End devices are connected together by a bus.
• It is easy to add and remove end devices.
• All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
• Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

• to determine the physical address of the sending device
• to verify the network layer protocol information
• to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
• to check the frame for possible transmission errors
• to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

• It initiates an ARP request.
• It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
• It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
• It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

• cut-through
• store-and-forward
• fragment-free
• fast-forward

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

• the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
• the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

• stores routing tables
• allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
• maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
• holds ARP cache
• stores bootstrap program

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

• A console port is used for remote management of the router.
• A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
• Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
• Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

• 192.0.2.199
• 198.51.100.201
• 203.0.113.211
• 209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

• 10.20.30.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.30.5.3
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

• private addresses
• public addresses
• multicast addresses
• experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 014 (v5.02, 2015)

• 11
• 12
• 13
• 14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

• 192.168.1.16/28
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.128/27
• 192.168.1.96/28
• 192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

• /23
• /24
• /25
• /26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

• Transmission Control Protocol
• Real-Time Transport Protocol
• Secure File Transfer Protocol
• Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

• to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
• to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
• to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
• to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 015 (v5.02, 2015)

• The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
• The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
• An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
• An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as full-duplex .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 016 (v5.02, 2015)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 017 (v5.02, 2015)

• area A
• area B
• area C
• area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

• to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
• to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
• to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
• to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

• audio conference, financial transactions, web page
• financial transactions, web page, audio conference
• audio conference, web page, financial transactions
• financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

• RAM
• flash
• NVRAM
• disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

• The configuration will be copied to flash.
• The configuration will load when the router is restarted.
• The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
• The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

• The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
• The device has end-to-end connectivity.
• DHCP is working correctly.
• The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
• The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

• It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
• It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
• It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
• It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

• CSMA/CD
• priority ordering
• CSMA/CA
• token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

• The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
• The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
• The switch drops the frame.
• The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
• 127.0.0.1
• 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

• the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
• the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
• the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
• the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

• cut-through switching
• store-and-forward switching
• fragment-free switching
• fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

• adjacency tables
• MAC-address tables
• routing tables
• ARP tables
• forwarding information base (FIB)

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

• It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
• It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward
• the destination host.
• It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
• It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

• ARP
• DNS
• NAT
• SMB
• DHCP
• HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 018 (v5.02, 2015)

• The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
• The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
• The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.
• The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

• the destination IP address
• the destination port number
• the source IP address
• the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

• Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.
• A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
• A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
• Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

• MAC address
• IP address
• kernel
• shell
• subnet mask

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

• The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
• Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
• Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
• Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

• It eliminates most address configuration errors.
• It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
• It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
• It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
• It reduces the burden on network support staff.

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

• 2001:DB8:BC15::0
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

• compression
• addressing
• encryption
• session control
• authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

• to require users to prove who they are
• to determine which resources a user can access
• to keep track of the actions of a user
• to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 019 (v5.02, 2015)

Updated 06 April 2015 (44 new question)

1. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

   • audio conference, financial transactions, web page
   • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
   • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
   • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

   

   CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 020 (v5.02, 2015)
   • letmein
   • secretin
   • lineconin
   • linevtyin

3. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

   • error correction through a collision detection method
   • session control using port numbers
   • data link layer addressing
   • placement and removal of frames from the media
   • detection of errors through CRC calculations
   • delimiting groups of bits into frames
   • conversion of bits into data signals

4. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

   • Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.
   • Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.
   • CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.
   • Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

5. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

   • to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)
   • to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses
   • to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making
   • to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

6. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

   • It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.
   • In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.
   • When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.
   • Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.

7. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

   • Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.
   • ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.
   • ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.
   • Both users must be on the same network.

8. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

   • link-local
   • unique local
   • site local
   • global unicast

9. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

   • to ensure the fastest possible download speed
   • because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
   • because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
   • because HTTP requires reliable delivery

10. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

    • 10111010
    • 11010101
    • 11001010
    • 11011010

11. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

    • 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
    • 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
    • 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
    • 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 021 (v5.02, 2015)
    • 11
    • 12
    • 13
    • 14

13. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

    • TTL field
    • CRC field
    • Hop Limit field
    • Time Exceeded field

14. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

    • Each subnet is the same size.
    • The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
    • Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
    • Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

15. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

    • port filtering
    • stateful packet inspection
    • URL filtering
    • application filtering

16. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

    • trace 10.1.1.5
    • traceroute 10.1.1.5
    • tracert 10.1.1.5
    • ping 10.1.1.5

17. Fill in the blank.

    To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be grounded correctly

18. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

19. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

    • The cable insulation could be flammable.
    • Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.
    • Network cables could be exposed to water.
    • The network cable could explode.

20. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

    • a multimeter
    • an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
    • a cable tester
    • an ohmmeter

21. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

    • capacitance
    • wire map
    • inductance
    • flexibility

22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 022 (v5.02, 2015)
    • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
    • just the PC0 MAC address
    • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
    • just the PC1 MAC address
    • just the PC2 MAC address​

23. Which function is provided by TCP?

    • data encapsulation
    • detection of missing packets
    • communication session control
    • path determination for data packets

24. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

    • an ARP table
    • a routing table
    • the destination PC physical address
    • a switching table

25. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

    • an inband router interface
    • a console port
    • a serial WAN interface
    • an AUX port

26. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

    • user executive mode
    • global configuration mode
    • any line configuration mode
    • privileged EXEC mode

27. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

    • TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
    • TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
    • UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
    • TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
    • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 023 (v5.02, 2015)
    • 2
    • 21
    • 250
    • 306
    • 2921

29. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

    • IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
    • A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.
    • A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.
    • Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 024 (v5.02, 2015)
    • subnet mask
    • DNS address
    • host IP address
    • default gateway address

31. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 025 (v5.02, 2015)
    • 172.16.16.255
    • 172.16.20.255
    • 172.16.19.255
    • 172.16.23.255
    • 172.16.255.255

32. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.144/28
      10.1.1.160/29
    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.144/28
      10.1.1.160/28
    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.140/28
      10.1.1.158/26
    • 10.1.1.128/26
      10.1.1.144/26
      10.1.1.160/26
    • 10.1.1.128/26
      10.1.1.140/26
      10.1.1.158/28

33. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6

34. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

    
    
    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 026 (v5.02, 2015)

35. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 027 (v5.02, 2015)
    • Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.
    • Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.
    • Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.
    • Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

36. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

    • It will remove encryption from all passwords.
    • It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​
    • It will not reverse any encryption.
    • It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

37. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

38. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

    • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
    • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
    • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
    • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
    • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

39. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

    • store-and-forward switching
    • fast-forward switching
    • CRC switching
    • fragment-free switching
    • QOS switching

40. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

    • Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.
    • A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.
    • An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.
    • An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.
    • Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.

41. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

    • to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
    • to identify the host address of the destination host
    • to identify faulty frames
    • to identify the network address of the destination network

42. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

    • 234.17.10.9
    • 234.16.12.10
    • 236.17.12.6
    • 236.17.12.10

43. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

    • ipconfig /all
    • arp -a
    • ipconfig /displaydns
    • nslookup

44. Fill in the blank.

    Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a Modular configuration.

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