CCNA 3 – Chapter 2 – Exam Answer 2016 100%

CCNA 3 – Chapter 2 – LAN Redundancy Exam Answer 2016 100%

1.What is an advantage of PVST+?

• PVST+ reduces bandwidth consumption compared to traditional implementations of STP that use CST.
• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through load sharing.
• PVST+ requires fewer CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
• PVST+ optimizes performance on the network through autoselection of the root bridge.

2.What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 loop?

• The Time-to-Live attribute of a frame is set to infinity.
• A switch is continually forwarding the same unicast frame.
• Broadcast frames are forwarded back to the sending switch.
• Routers continually forward packets to other routers.

3.Which two network design features require Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) to ensure correct network operation? (Choose two.)

• implementing VLANs to contain broadcasts
• link-state dynamic routing that provides redundant routes
• removing single points of failure with multiple Layer 2 switches
• static default routes
• redundant links between Layer 2 switches

4.Fill in the blank.
In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual router.

5.What is the outcome of a Layer 2 broadcast storm?

• New traffic is discarded by the switch because it is unable to be processed.
• ARP broadcast requests are returned to the transmitting host.
• Routers will take over the forwarding of frames as switches become congested.
• CSMA/CD will cause each host to continue transmitting frames.

6.Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID?

• IP address
• MAC address
• bridge priority
• cost
• port ID
• extended system ID

7.Which STP priority configuration would ensure that a switch would always be the root switch?

• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440
• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096
• spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 0
• spanning-tree vlan 10 root primary

8.Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.
The spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst global configuration command is used to enable Rapid PVST+.

9.Which protocol provides up to 16 instances of RSTP, combines many VLANs with the same physical and logical topology into a common RSTP instance, and provides support for PortFast, BPDU guard, BPDU filter, root guard, and loop guard?

• Rapid PVST+
• MST
• STP
• PVST+

10.What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

• VLAN ID
• port ID
• MAC address
• IP address

11.Which two types of spanning tree protocols can cause suboptimal traffic flows because they assume only one spanning-tree instance for the entire bridged network? (Choose two.)

• Rapid PVST+
• MSTP
• RSTP
• STP
• PVST+

12.In which two port states does a switch learn MAC addresses and process BPDUs in a PVST network? (Choose two.)

• disabled
• learning
• listening
• blocking
• forwarding

13.If no bridge priority is configured in PVST, which criteria is considered when electing the root bridge?

• lowest MAC address
• highest MAC address
• lowest IP address
• highest IP address

14.Which RSTP ports are connected to end devices?

• designated ports
• edge ports
• trunk ports
• root ports

15.A network administrator is preparing the implementation of Rapid PVST+ on a production network. How are the Rapid PVST+ link types determined on the switch interfaces?

• Link types must be configured with specific port configuration commands.
• Link types can only be configured on access ports configured with a single VLAN.
• Link types are determined automatically.
• Link types can only be determined if PortFast has been configured.

16.Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

• learning
• blocking
• listening
• forwarding

17.Match the step number to the sequence of stages that occur during the HSRP failover process. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 3 – Chapter 2 – LAN Redundancy Exam Answer 2016 100%

18.To obtain an overview of the spanning tree status of a switched network, a network engineer issues the show spanning-tree command on a switch. Which two items of information will this command display? (Choose two.)

• The role of the ports in all VLANs.
• The number of broadcasts received on each root port.
• The IP address of the management VLAN interface.
• The root bridge BID.
• The status of native VLAN ports.

19.Which nonproprietary protocol provides router redundancy for a group of routers which support IPv4 LANs?

• VRRPv2
• SLB
• HSRP
• GLBP

20.

CCNA 3 – Chapter 2 – LAN Redundancy Exam Answer 2016 100%

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol information is being displayed in the output?

• GLBP
• VRRP
• FHRP
• HSRP

21.

CCNA 3 – Chapter 2 – LAN Redundancy Exam Answer 2016 100%

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting host connectivity on a LAN that uses a first hop redundancy protocol. Which IPv4 gateway address should be configured on the host

• 192.168.2.1
• 192.168.2.100
• 192.168.2.0
• 192.168.2.2

22.Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.
Which switch is the root bridge?

• Switch_2
• Switch_4
• Switch_1
• Switch_3

23.What is the purpose of HSRP?

• It prevents a rogue switch from becoming the STP root.
• It prevents malicious hosts from connecting to trunk ports.
• It provides a continuous network connection when a router fails.
• It enables an access port to immediately transition to the forwarding state.

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CCNA 3 – Chapter 1 – Exam Answer 2016 100%

CCNA 3 – Chapter 1 – Introduction to Scaling Networks Exam Answer 2016 100%

1.Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network?

• the use of the building switch block approach
• the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic
• volume
• the use of a collapsed core design
• the installation of redundant power supplies

2.Which two features of enterprise class equipment assists an enterprise network in maintaining 99.999 percent up-time? (Choose two.)

• collapsed core
• failure domains
• services module
• failover capabilities
• redundant power supplies

3.Why would a network administrator issue the show cdp neigbors command on a router?

• to display router ID and other information about OSPF neighbors
• to display routing table and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• to display device ID and other information about directly connected Cisco devices
• to display line status and other information about directly connected Cisco devices

4.

CCNA 3 – Chapter 1 – Introduction Networks Exam Answer 2016 100%

Refer to the exhibit. Which devices exist in the failure domain when switch S3 loses power?

• PC_3 and AP_2
• PC_3 and PC_2
• S1 and S4
• S4 and PC_2
• AP_2 and AP_1

5.How can an enterprise network be designed to optimize bandwidth?

• by limiting the size of failure domains
• by organizing the network to control traffic patterns
• by installing devices with failover capabilities
• by deploying a collapsed core model

6.A network administrator is planning redundant devices and cabling in a switched network to support high availability. Which benefit will implementing the Spanning Tree Protocol provide to this design?

• Redundant paths can be available without causing logical Layer 2 loops.
• Faster convergence is available for advanced routing protocols.
• Multiple physical interfaces can be combined into a single EtherChannel interface.
• Network access can be expanded to support both wired and wireless devices.

7.As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?

• grouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
• providing redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
• providing redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
• grouping two devices to share a virtual IP address

8.Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Meraki switches?

• They are cloud-managed access switches that enable virtual stacking of switches.
• They are service provider switches that aggregate traffic at the edge of the network.
• They promote infrastructure scalability, operational continuity, and transport flexibility.
• They are campus LAN switches that perform the same functions as Cisco 2960 switches.

9.In which situation would a network administrator install a Cisco Nexus Series or Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series switch to promote infrastructure scalability?

• on a service provider network to promote integrated security, and simplified management
• on a campus LAN network as access layer switches
• to enable virtual stacking of switches to provide cloud-managed access
• on a data center network to provide expansion and transport flexibility

10.Which statement describes a characteristic of Cisco Catalyst 2960 switches?

• They are best used as distribution layer switches.
• New Cisco Catalyst 2960-C switches support PoE pass-through.
• They do not support an active switched virtual interface (SVI) with IOS versions prior to 15.x.
• They are modular switches.

11.What are two benefits of extending access layer connectivity to users through a wireless medium? (Choose two.)

• decreased number of critical points of failure
• reduced costs
• increased network management options
• increased flexibility
• increased bandwidth availability

12.A network engineer is reviewing a network design that uses a fixed configuration enterprise router that supports both LAN and WAN connections. However, the engineer realizes that the router does not have enough interfaces to support growth and network expansion. Which type of device should be used as replacement?

• a modular router
• another fixed configuration router
• a Layer 3 switch
• a PoE device

13.What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.
• It manages the VLAN database.
• It increases the size of the broadcast domain.
• It connects multiple IP networks.
• It determines the best path to send packets.

14.Immediately after a router completes its boot sequence, the network administrator wants to check the routers configuration. From privileged EXEC mode, which of the following commands can the administrator use for this purpose? (Choose two.)

• show NVRAM
• show running-config
• show version
• show flash
• show startup-config

15.What is a characteristic of in-band device management?

• It is used for initial configuration or when a network connection is unavailable.
• It is used to monitor and make configuration changes to a network device over a network connection.
• It uses a terminal emulation client.
• It uses a direct connection to a console or AUX port.

16.Mach the purpose to the related configuration item. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 3 – Chapter 1 – Introduction to Scaling Networks Exam Answer 2016 100%

17.Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include redundant links?

• Spanning Tree Protocol
• virtual LANs
• link aggregation
• virtual private networks

18.Which two requirements must always be met to use in-band management to configure a network device? (Choose two.)

• a direct connection to the auxiliary port
• at least one network interface that is connected and operational
• Telnet, SSH, or HTTP access to the device
• a direct connection to the console port
• a terminal emulation client

19. What is the function of ASICs in a multilayer switch?

• They aggregate multiple physical switch ports into a single logical port.
• They provide power to devices such as IP phones and wireless access points through Ethernet ports.
• They streamline forwarding of IP packets in a multilayer switch by bypassing the CPU.
• They prevent Layer 2 loops by disabling redundant links between switches.

20. What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?

• rack unit
• module size
• domain size
• port density

21. In the Cisco Enterprise Architecture, which two functional parts of the network are combined to form a collapsed core design? (Choose two.)

• enterprise edge
• core layer
• access layer
• distribution layer
• provider edge

22. What network design would contain the scope of disruptions on a network should a failure occur?

• the installation of only enterprise class equipment throughout the network
• the reduction in the number of redundant devices and connections in the network core
• the configuration of all access layer devices to share a single gateway
• the deployment of distribution layer switches in pairs and the division of access layer switch connections between them

23. What are two ways to access a Cisco switch for out-of-band management? (Choose two.)

• a connection that uses HTTP
• a connection that uses Telnet
• a connection that uses SSH
• a connection that uses the AUX port
• a connection that uses the console port

24. What is the function of PoE pass-through?

• allows multiple physical switch ports to be aggregated together and act as a single logical link to increase bandwidth on trunk links
• allows a multilayer switch to forward IP packets at a rate close to that of Layer 2 switching by bypassing the CPU
• allows switches, phones, and wireless access points to receive power over existing Ethernet cables from an upstream switch
• allows a switch to disable redundant Layer 2 paths in the topology to prevent Layer 2 loops

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