CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)-Updated 06 April 2015 (44 new question)

1. Which communication tool allows real-time collaboration?

• wiki
• e-mail
• weblog
• instant messaging

2. A host is accessing a Web server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

3. A home user is looking for an ISP connection that provides high speed digital transmission over regular phone lines. What ISP connection type should be used?

• DSL
• dial-up
• satellite
• cell modem
• cable modem

4. A company is expanding its business to other countries. All branch offices must remain connected to corporate headquarters at all times. Which network technology is required to support this requirement?

• LAN
• MAN
• WAN
• WLAN

5. Refer to the exhibit. From which location did this router load the IOS?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• flash memory
• NVRAM?
• RAM
• ROM
• a TFTP server?

6. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco network device?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

7. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

• The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.
• The administrator is already in global configuration mode.
• The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
• The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode.

8. An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

• to restart the ping process
• to interrupt the ping process
• to exit to a different configuration mode
• to allow the user to complete the command

9. What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

• It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.
• It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.
• It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.
• It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

10. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 003 (v5.02, 2015)

• My Switch(config)#?
• Switch(config)#?
• MySwitch(config)#?
• My(config)#?
• Switch#

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 004 (v5.02, 2015)

• letmein
• secretin
• lineconin
• linevtyin

12. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

• The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
• The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
• The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
• The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Which action will be successful?

• PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1?.
• PC1 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.
• PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.1.
• PC2 can send a ping to 192.168.1.254?.

14. Which IPv4 address can be pinged to test the internal TCP/IP operation of a host?

• 0.0.0.0
• 0.0.0.1
• 127.0.0.1
• 192.168.1.1
• 255.255.255.255

15. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

• ARP
• DHCP
• DNS
• FTP
• NAT
• PPP

16. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

• ARP
• BOOTP
• ICMP
• IP
• PPP

17. Which publicly available resources describe protocols, processes, and technologies for the Internet but do not give implementation details?

• Request for Comments
• IRTF research papers
• protocol models
• IEEE standards

18. Which address on a PC does not change, even if the PC is moved to a different network?

• IP address
• default gateway address
• MAC address
• logical address

19. What is the protocol that is used to discover a physical address from a known logical address and what message type does it use?

• ARP, multicast
• DNS, unicast
• DNS, broadcast
• ARP, broadcast
• PING, multicast
• PING, broadcast

20. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

• The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
• The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
• The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
• The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
• A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

21. What is an important function of the physical layer of the OSI model?

• It accepts frames from the physical media.
• It encapsulates upper layer data into frames.
• It defines the media access method performed by the hardware interface.
• It encodes frames into electrical, optical, or radio wave signals.

22. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?

• requiring proper grounding connections
• twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
• wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
• designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
• avoiding sharp bends during installation

23. Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

• Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity.
• Fiber-optic cabling has high signal loss.
• Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.
• Multimode fiber-optic cabling carries signals from multiple sending devices.
• Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cab?les and laser technology for multimode cables.

24. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

• logical address
• physical address
• data
• error detection

25. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

• the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
• the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a
• crossover Ethernet cable connection
• the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
• the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

26. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC3 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC2 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 005 (v5.02, 2015)

• just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
• just the PC0 MAC address
• PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
• just the PC1 MAC address
• just the PC2 MAC address?

27. How does a Layer 3 switch differ from a Layer 2 switch?

• A Layer 3 switch supports VLANs, but a Layer 2 switch does not.
• An IP address can be assigned to a physical port of a Layer 3 switch. However, this is not supported in Layer 2 switches.
• A Layer 3 switch maintains an IP address table instead of a MAC address table.
• A Layer 3 switch learns the MAC addresses that are associated with each of its ports. However, a Layer 2 switch does not.

28. What is the purpose of the routing process?

• to encapsulate data that is used to communicate across a network
• to select the paths that are used to direct traffic to destination networks
• to convert a URL name into an IP address
• to provide secure Internet file transfer
• to forward traffic on the basis of MAC addresses

29. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

• ARP
• DNS
• NAT
• SMB
• DHCP
• HTTP

30. Refer to the exhibit. Consider the IP address configuration shown from PC1. What is a description of the default gateway address?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 006 (v5.02, 2015)

• It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the company to the Internet.
• It is the IP address of the Router1 interface that connects the PC1 LAN to Router1.
• It is the IP address of Switch1 that connects PC1 to other devices on the same LAN.
• It is the IP address of the ISP network device located in the cloud.

31. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)

• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

32. Which two statements correctly describe a router memory type and its contents? (Choose two.)

• ROM is nonvolatile and stores the running IOS.
• FLASH is nonvolatile and contains a limited portion of the IOS?.
• RAM is volatile and stores the running configuration.
• NVRAM is nonvolatile and stores a full version of the IOS.
• ROM is nonvolatile and stores bootup information.

33. In which default order will a router search for startup configuration information?

• NVRAM, RAM, TFTP
• NVRAM, TFTP, setup mode
• setup mode, NVRAM, TFTP
• TFTP, ROM, NVRAM
• flash, ROM, setup mode

34. What happens when part of an Internet VoIP transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the VoIP transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

35. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

• 10.172.168.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.20.4.4
• 192.168.5.254
• 224.6.6.6

36. How many bits make up the single IPv6 hextet :10CD:?

• 4
• 8
• 16
• 32

37. What is the effect of configuring the ipv6 unicast-routing command on a router?

• to assign the router to the all-nodes multicast group
• to enable the router as an IPv6 router
• to permit only unicast packets on the router
• to prevent the router from joining the all-routers multicast group

38. Which group of IPv6 addresses cannot be allocated as a host source address?

• FEC0::/10?
• FDFF::/7?
• FEBF::/10?
• FF00::/8

39. What is the purpose of ICMP messages?

• to inform routers about network topology changes
• to ensure the delivery of an IP packet
• to provide feedback of IP packet transmissions
• to monitor the process of a domain name to IP address resolution

40. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has configured a user workstation with the IP address and default subnet masks that are shown. Although the user can access all local LAN resources, the user cannot access any Internet sites by using either FQDN or IP addresses. Based upon the exhibit, what could account for this failure?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 007 (v5.02, 2015)

• The DNS server addresses are incorrect.
• The default gateway address in incorrect.
• The wrong subnet mask was assigned to the workstation.
• The workstation is not in the same network as the DNS servers.

41. Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

• 192.168.1.64/26
• 192.168.1.32/27
• 192.168.1.32/28
• 192.168.1.64/29

42. A network administrator needs to monitor network traffic to and from servers in a data center. Which features of an IP addressing scheme should be applied to these devices?

• random static addresses to improve security
• addresses from different subnets for redundancy
• predictable static IP addresses for easier identification
• dynamic addresses to reduce the probability of duplicate addresses

43. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be changed?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 008 (v5.02, 2015)

• Site 1
• Site 2
• Site 3
• Site 4

44. Which two notations are useable nibble boundaries when subnetting in IPv6? (Choose two.)

• /62
• /64
• /66
• /68
• /70

45. A host PC has just booted and is attempting to lease an address through DHCP. Which two messages will the client typically broadcast on the network? (Choose two.)

• DHCPDISCOVER
• DHCPOFFER
• DHCPREQUEST
• DHCPACK
• DHCPNACK

46. What is the purpose of the network security accounting function?

• to require users to prove who they are
• to determine which resources a user can access
• to keep track of the actions of a user
• to provide challenge and response questions

47. When applied to a router, which command would help mitigate brute-force password attacks against the router?

• exec-timeout 30
• service password-encryption
• banner motd $Max failed logins = 5$
• login block-for 60 attempts 5 within 60

48. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

• ipconfig /all
• arp -a
• ipconfig /displaydns
• nslookup

49. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator enters these commands into the R1 router:

R1# copy running-config tftp
Address or name of remote host [ ]?

When the router prompts for an address or remote host name, what IP address should the administrator enter at the prompt?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 009 (v5.02, 2015)

• 192.168.9.254
• 192.168.10.1
• 192.168.10.2
• 192.168.11.252
• 192.168.11.254

50. Match the IPv6 address to the IPv6 address type. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 010 (v5.02, 2015)

51. What two preconfigured settings that affect security are found on most new wireless routers? (Choose two.)

• broadcast SSID
• MAC filtering enabled
• WEP encryption enabled
• PSK authentication required
• default administrator password

52. Which type of wireless security generates dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

53. Fill in the blank.

TFTP is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.

54. Which two components are necessary for a wireless client to be installed on a WLAN? (Choose two.)

• media
• wireless NIC
• custom adapter
• crossover cable
• wireless bridge
• wireless client software

55. Consider the following range of addresses:

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A0:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A1:0000::

2001:0DB8:BC15:00A2:0000::

…

2001:0DB8:BC15:00AF:0000::

The prefix-length for the range of addresses is /60 .

56. Match the phases to their correct stage in the router bootup process. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 011 (v5.02, 2015)

57. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

58. When is a dial-up connection used to connect to an ISP?

• when a cellular telephone provides the service
• when a high-speed connection is provided over a cable TV network
• when a satellite dish is used
• when a regular telephone line is used

59. On a school network, students are surfing the web, searching the library database, and attending an audio conference with their sister school in Japan. If network traffic is prioritized with QoS, how will the traffic be classified from highest priority to lowest priority?

• audio conference, database, HTTP
• database, HTTP, audio conference
• audio conference, HTTP, database
• database, audio conference, HTTP

60. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco routers run the IOS?

• RAM
• flash
• NVRAM
• disk drive

61. Which connection provides a secure CLI session with encryption to a Cisco switch?

• a console connection
• an AUX connection
• a Telnet connection
• an SSH connection

62. Which keys act as a hot key combination that is used to interrupt an IOS process?

• Ctrl-Shift-X
• Ctrl-Shift-6
• Ctrl-Z
• Ctrl-C

63. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to change the name of a brand new switch, using the hostname command as shown. What prompt will display after the command is issued??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 012 (v5.02, 2015)

• HR Switch(config)#?
• Switch(config)#?
• HRSwitch(config)#?
• HR(config)#?
• Switch#

64. After making configuration changes on a Cisco switch, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command. What is the result of issuing this command?

• The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
• The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
• The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
• The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

65. On which switch interface would an administrator configure an IP address so that the switch can be managed remotely?

• FastEthernet0/1
• VLAN 1
• vty 0
• console 0

66. A technician uses the ping 127.0.0.1 command. What is the technician testing?

• the TCP/IP stack on a network host
• connectivity between two adjacent Cisco devices
• connectivity between a PC and the default gateway
• connectivity between two PCs on the same network
• physical connectivity of a particular PC and the network

67. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 013 (v5.02, 2015)

68. Which device should be used for enabling a host to communicate with another host on a different network?

• switch
• hub
• router
• host

69. A network technician is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical application. The technician notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

• the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
• the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
• the type of traffic that is crossing the network
• the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
• the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
• the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

70. Which characteristics describe fiber optic cable? (Choose two.)

• It is not affected by EMI or RFI.
• Each pair of cables is wrapped in metallic foil.
• It combines the technique of cancellation, shielding and twisting to protect data.
• It has a maximum speed of 100 Mbps.
• It is the most expensive type of LAN cabling

71. What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)

• It is straightforward to troubleshoot.
• End devices are connected together by a bus.
• It is easy to add and remove end devices.
• All end devices are connected in a chain to each other.
• Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor.

72. A frame is transmitted from one networking device to another. Why does the receiving device check the FCS field in the frame?

• to determine the physical address of the sending device
• to verify the network layer protocol information
• to compare the interface media type between the sending and receiving ends
• to check the frame for possible transmission errors
• to verify that the frame destination matches the MAC address of the receiving device

73. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame is not in the MAC table?

• It initiates an ARP request.
• It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
• It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
• It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was received.

74. Which switching method has the lowest level of latency?

• cut-through
• store-and-forward
• fragment-free
• fast-forward

75. Which parameter does the router use to choose the path to the destination when there are multiple routes available?

• the lower metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the lower gateway IP address to get to the destination network
• the higher metric value that is associated with the destination network
• the higher gateway IP address to get to the destination network

76. Which two statements describe the functions or characteristics of ROM in a router? (Choose two.)

• stores routing tables
• allows software to be updated without replacing pluggable chips on the motherboard
• maintains instructions for POST diagnostics
• holds ARP cache
• stores bootstrap program

77. Which statement describes a characteristic of the Cisco router management ports?

• A console port is used for remote management of the router.
• A console port is not used for packet forwarding.
• Serial and DSL interfaces are types of management ports.
• Each Cisco router has a LED indicator to provide information about the status of the management ports.

78. What happens when part of an Internet radio transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the radio transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

79. What is the dotted decimal representation of the IPv4 address 11001011.00000000.01110001.11010011?

• 192.0.2.199
• 198.51.100.201
• 203.0.113.211
• 209.165.201.223

80. Which three IP addresses are private ? (Choose three.)

• 10.20.30.1
• 172.32.5.2
• 192.167.10.10
• 172.30.5.3
• 192.168.5.5
• 224.6.6.6

81. What types of addresses make up the majority of addresses within the /8 block IPv4 bit space?

• private addresses
• public addresses
• multicast addresses
• experimental addresses

82. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 014 (v5.02, 2015)

• 11
• 12
• 13
• 14

83. A company has a network address of 192.168.1.64 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. The company wants to create two subnetworks that would contain 10 hosts and 18 hosts respectively. Which two networks would achieve that? (Choose two.)

• 192.168.1.16/28
• 192.168.1.64/27
• 192.168.1.128/27
• 192.168.1.96/28
• 192.168.1.192/28

84. In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

• /23
• /24
• /25
• /26

85. Which protocol supports rapid delivery of streaming media?

• Transmission Control Protocol
• Real-Time Transport Protocol
• Secure File Transfer Protocol
• Video over Internet Protocol

86. Why would a network administrator use the tracert utility?

• to determine the active TCP connections on a PC
• to check information about a DNS name in the DNS server
• to identify where a packet was lost or delayed on a network
• to display the IP address, default gateway, and DNS server address for a PC

87. Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the asterisk (*) in the exhibited output?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 015 (v5.02, 2015)

• The asterisk shows which file system was used to boot the system.
• The asterisk designates which file system is the default file system.
• An asterisk indicates that the file system is bootable.
• An asterisk designates that the file system has at least one file that uses that file system.

88. Which WLAN security protocol generates a new dynamic key each time a client establishes a connection with the AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

89. Fill in the blank.

Point-to-point communications where both devices can transmit and receive on the medium at the same time are known as full-duplex .

90. Match each characteristic to the appropriate email protocol. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 016 (v5.02, 2015)

91. A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)

• regenerating data signals
• acting as a client or a server
• providing a channel over which messages travel
• applying security settings to control the flow of data
• notifying other devices when errors occur
• serving as the source or destination of the messages

92. Refer to the exhibit. Which area would most likely be an extranet for the company network that is shown?

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 017 (v5.02, 2015)

• area A
• area B
• area C
• area D

93. What is the purpose of having a converged network?

• to provide high speed connectivity to all end devices
• to make sure that all types of data packets will be treated equally
• to achieve fault tolerance and high availability of data network infrastructure devices
• to reduce the cost of deploying and maintaining the communication infrastructure

94. Three office workers are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other office workers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

• audio conference, financial transactions, web page
• financial transactions, web page, audio conference
• audio conference, web page, financial transactions
• financial transactions, audio conference, web page

95. During normal operation, from which location do most Cisco switches and routers run the IOS?

• RAM
• flash
• NVRAM
• disk drive

96. A network administrator is making changes to the configuration of a router. After making the changes and verifying the results, the administrator issues the copy running-config startup-config command. What will happen after this command executes?

• The configuration will be copied to flash.
• The configuration will load when the router is restarted.
• The new configuration file will replace the IOS file.
• The changes will be lost when the router restarts.

97. What information does the loopback test provide?

• The TCP/IP stack on the device is working correctly.
• The device has end-to-end connectivity.
• DHCP is working correctly.
• The Ethernet cable is working correctly.
• The device has the correct IP address on the network.

98. What is a characteristic of the LLC sublayer?

• It provides the logical addressing required that identifies the device.
• It provides delimitation of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium.
• It places information in the frame allowing multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media.
• It defines software processes that provide services to the physical layer.

99. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

• CSMA/CD
• priority ordering
• CSMA/CA
• token passing

100. What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

• The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame.
• The switch notifies the source of the bad frame.
• The switch drops the frame.
• The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

101. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.255.255
• FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
• 127.0.0.1
• 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

102. What is the auto-MDIX feature on a switch?

• the automatic configuration of an interface for 10/100/1000 Mb/s operation
• the automatic configuration of an interface for a straight-through or a crossover Ethernet cable connection
• the automatic configuration of full-duplex operation over a single Ethernet copper or optical cable
• the ability to turn a switch interface on or off accordingly if an active connection is detected

103. Which frame forwarding method receives the entire frame and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame?

• cut-through switching
• store-and-forward switching
• fragment-free switching
• fast-forward switching

104. What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

• adjacency tables
• MAC-address tables
• routing tables
• ARP tables
• forwarding information base (FIB)

105. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

• It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.
• It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward
• the destination host.
• It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.
• It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

106. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?

• ARP
• DNS
• NAT
• SMB
• DHCP
• HTTP

107. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 has two interfaces that were configured with correct IP addresses and subnet masks. Why does the show ip route command output not display any information about the directly connected networks??

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 018 (v5.02, 2015)

• The directly connected networks have to be created manually to be displayed in the routing table.
• The routing table will only display information about these networks when the router receives a packet.
• The no shutdown command was not issued on these interfaces.
• The gateway of last resort was not configured.

108. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?

• A delivery failure message is sent to the source host.
• The part of the television transmission that was lost is re-sent.
• The entire transmission is re-sent.
• The transmission continues without the missing portion.

109. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

• TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
• TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
• UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
• TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
• TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

110. A user opens three browsers on the same PC to access www.cisco.com to search for certification course information. The Cisco web server sends a datagram as a reply to the request from one of the web browsers. Which information is used by the TCP/IP protocol stack in the PC to identify the destination web browser?

• the destination IP address
• the destination port number
• the source IP address
• the source port number

111. Which statement is true regarding the UDP client process during a session with a server?

• Datagrams that arrive in a different order than that in which they were sent are not placed in order.
• A session must be established before datagrams can be exchanged.
• A three-way handshake takes place before the transmission of data begins.
• Application servers have to use port numbers above 1024 in order to be UDP capable.

112. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)

• MAC address
• IP address
• kernel
• shell
• subnet mask

113. What are three characteristics of multicast transmission? (Choose three.)

• The source address of a multicast transmission is in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• A single packet can be sent to a group of hosts.
• Multicast transmission can be used by routers to exchange routing information.
• Routers will not forward multicast addresses in the range of 224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255.
• Computers use multicast transmission to request IPv4 addresses.
• Multicast messages map lower layer addresses to upper layer addresses.

114. Which two reasons generally make DHCP the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks? (Choose two.)

• It eliminates most address configuration errors.
• It ensures that addresses are only applied to devices that require a permanent address.
• It guarantees that every device that needs an address will get one.
• It provides an address only to devices that are authorized to be connected to the network.
• It reduces the burden on network support staff.

115. What is the subnet address for the address 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12AB::1/64?

• 2001:DB8:BC15::0
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A::0
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:1::1
• 2001:DB8:BC15:A:12::0

116. Which two tasks are functions of the presentation layer? (Choose two.)

• compression
• addressing
• encryption
• session control
• authentication

117. What is the purpose of the network security authentication function?

• to require users to prove who they are
• to determine which resources a user can access
• to keep track of the actions of a user
• to provide challenge and response questions

118. Which type of wireless security makes use of dynamic encryption keys each time a client associates with an AP?

• EAP
• PSK
• WEP
• WPA

119. Fill in the blank.

During data communications, a host may need to send a single message to a specific group of destination hosts simultaneously. This message is in the form of a Multicast message.

120. Match the description with the associated IOS mode. (Not all options are used.)

CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 019 (v5.02, 2015)

Updated 06 April 2015 (44 new question)

1. Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

   • audio conference, financial transactions, web page
   • financial transactions, web page, audio conference
   • audio conference, web page, financial transactions
   • financial transactions, audio conference, web page

2. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator has already logged into a Telnet session on the switch, which password is needed to access privileged EXEC mode?

   

   CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 020 (v5.02, 2015)
   • letmein
   • secretin
   • lineconin
   • linevtyin

3. What are the three primary functions provided by Layer 2 data encapsulation? (Choose three.)

   • error correction through a collision detection method
   • session control using port numbers
   • data link layer addressing
   • placement and removal of frames from the media
   • detection of errors through CRC calculations
   • delimiting groups of bits into frames
   • conversion of bits into data signals

4. What must be configured to enable Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) on most Cisco devices that perform Layer 3 switching?

   • Manually configure next-hop Layer 2 addresses.
   • Issue the no shutdown command on routed ports.
   • CEF is enabled by default, so no configuration is necessary.
   • Manually map Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses to populate the forwarding information base (FIB).

5. What is the purpose of adjacency tables as used in Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?

   • to populate the forwarding information base (FIB)
   • to maintain Layer 2 next-hop addresses
   • to allow the separation of Layer 2 and Layer 3 decision making
   • to update the forwarding information base (FIB)

6. Which statement describes a characteristic of the network layer in the OSI model?

   • It manages the data transport between the processes running on each host.
   • In the encapsulation process, it adds source and destination port numbers to the IP header.
   • When a packet arrives at the destination host, its IP header is checked by the network layer to determine where the packet has to be routed.
   • Its protocols specify the packet structure and processing used to carry the data from one host to another.

7. A user gets an IP address of 192.168.0.1 from the company network administrator. A friend of the user at a different company gets the same IP address on another PC. How can two PCs use the same IP address and still reach the Internet, send and receive email, and search the web?

   • Both users must be using the same Internet Service Provider.
   • ISPs use Network Address Translation to change a user IP address into an address that can be used on the Internet.
   • ISPs use Domain Name Service to change a user IP address into a public IP address that can be used on the Internet.
   • Both users must be on the same network.

8. At a minimum, which address is required on IPv6-enabled interfaces?

   • link-local
   • unique local
   • site local
   • global unicast

9. Why does HTTP use TCP as the transport layer protocol?

   • to ensure the fastest possible download speed
   • because HTTP is a best-effort protocol
   • because transmission errors can be tolerated easily
   • because HTTP requires reliable delivery

10. What is the binary representation of 0xCA?

    • 10111010
    • 11010101
    • 11001010
    • 11011010

11. What is the valid most compressed format possible of the IPv6 address 2001:0DB8:0000:AB00:0000:0000:0000:1234?

    • 2001:DB8:0:AB00::1234
    • 2001:DB8:0:AB::1234
    • 2001:DB8::AB00::1234
    • 2001:DB8:0:AB:0:1234

12. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum TTL value that is used to reach the destination www.cisco.com?​

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 021 (v5.02, 2015)
    • 11
    • 12
    • 13
    • 14

13. What field content is used by ICMPv6 to determine that a packet has expired?

    • TTL field
    • CRC field
    • Hop Limit field
    • Time Exceeded field

14. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

    • Each subnet is the same size.
    • The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
    • Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
    • Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

15. Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

    • port filtering
    • stateful packet inspection
    • URL filtering
    • application filtering

16. A network technician is investigating network connectivity from a PC to a remote host with the address 10.1.1.5. Which command issued on the PC will return to the technician the complete path to the remote host?

    • trace 10.1.1.5
    • traceroute 10.1.1.5
    • tracert 10.1.1.5
    • ping 10.1.1.5

17. Fill in the blank.

    To prevent faulty network devices from carrying dangerous voltage levels, equipment must be grounded correctly

18. A network engineer is measuring the transfer of bits across the company backbone for a mission critical database application. The engineer notices that the network throughput appears lower than the bandwidth expected. Which three factors could influence the differences in throughput? (Choose three.)

    • the amount of traffic that is currently crossing the network
    • the sophistication of the encapsulation method applied to the data
    • the type of traffic that is crossing the network
    • the latency that is created by the number of network devices that the data is crossing
    • the bandwidth of the WAN connection to the Internet
    • the reliability of the gigabit Ethernet infrastructure of the backbone

19. What is a possible hazard that can be caused by network cables in a fire?

    • The cable insulation could be flammable.
    • Users could be exposed to excessive voltage.
    • Network cables could be exposed to water.
    • The network cable could explode.

20. What device is commonly used to verify a UTP cable?

    • a multimeter
    • an Optical Time Domain Reflectometer
    • a cable tester
    • an ohmmeter

21. What needs to be checked when testing a UTP network cable?

    • capacitance
    • wire map
    • inductance
    • flexibility

22. Refer to the exhibit. A ping to PC2 is issued from PC0, PC1, and PC3 in this exact order. Which MAC addresses will be contained in the S1 MAC address table that is associated with the Fa0/1 port?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 022 (v5.02, 2015)
    • just PC0 and PC1 MAC addresses
    • just the PC0 MAC address
    • PC0, PC1, and PC2 MAC addresses
    • just the PC1 MAC address
    • just the PC2 MAC address​

23. Which function is provided by TCP?

    • data encapsulation
    • detection of missing packets
    • communication session control
    • path determination for data packets

24. What does a router use to determine where to send data it receives from the network?

    • an ARP table
    • a routing table
    • the destination PC physical address
    • a switching table

25. Which router interface should be used for direct remote access to the router via a modem?

    • an inband router interface
    • a console port
    • a serial WAN interface
    • an AUX port

26. A technician is configuring a router to allow for all forms of management access. As part of each different type of access, the technician is trying to type the command login. Which configuration mode should be entered to do this task?

    • user executive mode
    • global configuration mode
    • any line configuration mode
    • privileged EXEC mode

27. Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

    • TCP and UDP port numbers are used by application layer protocols.
    • TCP uses port numbers to provide reliable transportation of IP packets.
    • UDP uses windowing and acknowledgments for reliable transfer of data.
    • TCP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.
    • TCP is a connection-oriented protocol. UDP is a connectionless protocol.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been received?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 023 (v5.02, 2015)
    • 2
    • 21
    • 250
    • 306
    • 2921

29. Which statement is true about an interface that is configured with the IPv6 address command?

    • IPv6 traffic-forwarding is enabled on the interface.
    • A link-local IPv6 address is automatically configured on the interface.
    • A global unicast IPv6 address is dynamically configured on the interface.
    • Any IPv4 addresses that are assigned to the interface are replaced with an IPv6 address.

30. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for a small advertising company has chosen to use the 192.168.5.96/27 network for internal LAN addressing. As shown in the exhibit, a static IP address is assigned to the company web server. However, the web server cannot access the Internet. The administrator verifies that local workstations with IP addresses that are assigned by a DHCP server can access the Internet, and the web server is able to ping local workstations. Which component is incorrectly configured?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 024 (v5.02, 2015)
    • subnet mask
    • DNS address
    • host IP address
    • default gateway address

31. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must send a message to everyone on the router A network. What is the broadcast address for network 172.16.16.0/22?

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 025 (v5.02, 2015)
    • 172.16.16.255
    • 172.16.20.255
    • 172.16.19.255
    • 172.16.23.255
    • 172.16.255.255

32. A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.144/28
      10.1.1.160/29
    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.144/28
      10.1.1.160/28
    • 10.1.1.128/28
      10.1.1.140/28
      10.1.1.158/26
    • 10.1.1.128/26
      10.1.1.144/26
      10.1.1.160/26
    • 10.1.1.128/26
      10.1.1.140/26
      10.1.1.158/28

33. How many additional bits should be borrowed from a /26 subnet mask in order to create subnets for WAN links that need only 2 useable addresses?

    • 2
    • 3
    • 4
    • 5
    • 6

34. A network administrator requires access to manage routers and switches locally and remotely. Match the description to the access method. (Not all options are used.)

    
    
    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 026 (v5.02, 2015)

35. Refer to the exhibit. The administrator configured the access to the console and the vty lines of a router. Which conclusion can be drawn from this configuration?​

    

    CCNA 1 Final Exam Answer 027 (v5.02, 2015)
    • Unauthorized individuals can connect to the router via Telnet without entering a password.
    • Because the IOS includes the login command on the vty lines by default, access to the device via Telnet will require authentication.
    • Access to the vty lines will not be allowed via Telnet by anyone.
    • Because the login command was omitted, the password cisco command is not applied to the vty lines.

36. An administrator issued the service password-encryption command to apply encryption to the passwords configured for enable password, vty, and console lines. What will be the consequences if the administrator later issues the no service password-encryption command?

    • It will remove encryption from all passwords.
    • It will reverse only the vty and console password encryptions.​
    • It will not reverse any encryption.
    • It will reverse only the enable password encryption.

37. After making configuration changes, a network administrator issues a copy running-config startup-config command in a Cisco switch. What is the result of issuing this command?

    • The new configuration will be stored in flash memory.
    • The new configuration will be loaded if the switch is restarted.
    • The current IOS file will be replaced with the newly configured file.
    • The configuration changes will be removed and the original configuration will be restored.

38. What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

    • If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.
    • An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address.
    • When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
    • If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment.
    • If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.

39. What are two examples of the cut-through switching method? (Choose two.)

    • store-and-forward switching
    • fast-forward switching
    • CRC switching
    • fragment-free switching
    • QOS switching

40. A network administrator is enabling services on a newly installed server. Which two statements describe how services are used on a server? (Choose two.)

    • Data sent with a service that uses TCP is received in the order the data was sent.
    • A port is considered to be open when it has an active server application that is assigned to it.
    • An individual server can have two services that are assigned to the same port number.
    • An individual server cannot have multiple services running at the same time.
    • Server security can be improved by closing ports that are associated with unused services.

41. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address and subnet mask?

    • to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
    • to identify the host address of the destination host
    • to identify faulty frames
    • to identify the network address of the destination network

42. Given the binary address of 11101100 00010001 00001100 00001010, which address does this represent in dotted decimal format?

    • 234.17.10.9
    • 234.16.12.10
    • 236.17.12.6
    • 236.17.12.10

43. A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

    • ipconfig /all
    • arp -a
    • ipconfig /displaydns
    • nslookup

44. Fill in the blank.

    Network devices come in two physical configurations. Devices that have expansion slots that provide the flexibility to add new modules have a Modular configuration.

Read more ...

ITE Final Exam Answer v5 & v5.02 2015 (100%)

1. Which statement is true about the use of an antistatic wrist strap?

• An antistatic wrist strap should not be used in conjunction with an antistatic mat.
• For optimum grounding, the clip should be attached to a painted section of the computer case.
• The metal part of the wrist strap should not make contact with your skin.
• An antistatic wrist strap should not be worn when repairing a power supply.

2. Which action can reduce the risk of ESD damage when computer equipment is being worked on?

• working on a grounded antistatic mat
• lowering the humidity level in the work area
• moving cordless phones away from the work area
• keeping the computer plugged into a surge protector

3. A customer is upset and wants to speak to a specific technician to resolve a problem immediately. The requested technician is away from the office for the next hour. What is the best way to handle this call?

• Refer the angry customer to a supervisor.
• Advise the customer that the requested technician is out of the office and insist on trying to resolve the problem.
• Make an offer to help the customer immediately, and advise the customer that otherwise the requested technician will call the customer back within two hours.
• Ignore the request for the specific technician by walking through a step-by-step process with the customer in an attempt to refocus the customer and solve the problem.

4. What approach should a technician take when receiving a call from a stressed customer?

• Ask the customer to telephone back when the customer is feeling less stressed.
• Ask the customer to hold, and then wait five minutes for the customer to calm down.
• Try to establish a rapport with the customer.
• Transfer the customer to a level-two technician who will ask the customer to explain the problem again.

5. A call center technician answers a call from a frequent customer who is known to be impatient and lacks experience with computers. The customer has an issue with an application that the call center supports. The customer informs the technician that the problem had been reported before but the original technician was rude, did not listen, and did not fix the problem. If the technician is confident that the problem can be resolved by increasing the amount of memory in the computer, what should the technician do?

• Tell the customer to install 2 GB of DDR3 PC3-10600 RAM.
• Explain that the original technician is no good and the supervisor will be told.
• Suggest that the customer purchase a new computer.
• Confirm the issues and give detailed instructions to solve the problem.

6. A call center technician has asked a customer to perform a simple operation to fix a problem on a computer. The customer seems unable to perform the task. What should the technician do?

• Explain to the customer that it is a simple task and ask the customer to try it again.
• Ask the customer to find someone with more experience to perform the task.
• Tell the customer that another technician will explain the task .
• Determine whether the customer would prefer to receive the instructions in another form, such as emailed, illustrated written instructions.

7. What two actions are appropriate for a support desk technician to take when assisting customers? (Choose two.)

• Interrupt customers if they start to solve their own problems.
• Comfort a customer by minimizing the customer problem.
• Let a customer finish talking before asking additional questions.
• If you have to put the customer on hold, ask the customer for permission.
• As soon as you detect customer anger, pass the angry customer to the next level.

8. A user has installed a new printer. Which two pieces of information about the printer operation are provided by printing a test page from the computer? (Choose two.)

• confirmation that the color calibration is optimized
• verification of print spool settings
• confirmation that duplex (double-sided) printing is working correctly
• verification that driver software is working correctly
• confirmation that printer and computer are communicating

9. Which two procedures should be done before performing preventive maintenance on a laptop? (Choose two.)

• Attach any devices that are normally used as part of daily operations.
• Verify that all drivers are current.
• Ensure the BIOS is the latest version.
• Disconnect the AC adapter.
• Remove the battery.
• Ensure the latest operating system updates have been applied.

10. What is a typical task performed by a level one technician in a call center?

• gathering information when a customer calls for help
• solving the problem that might require opening up the computer case
• using remote access software to troubleshoot the customer computer
• picking up an escalated work order and calling the customer for further information

11. What laptop component converts DC power to AC so that the display can illuminate?

• inverter
• backlight
• CCFL
• battery
• motherboard

12. A technician needs to configure a Bluetooth headset for a laptop user. Which two steps should the technician take before installing the headset? (Choose two.)

• Remove the battery.
• Disconnect AC power.
• Enable Bluetooth in BIOS Setup.
• Ensure that the antistatic wrist strap is attached to a nonpainted portion of the laptop.
• Ensure that the laptop Bluetooth switch is enabled.

13. Which three actions should be part of a regular computer preventive maintenance plan? (Choose three.)

• removing dust from fan intakes, the power supply, and peripherals
• installing appropriate security updates
• removing unused or unwanted programs
• changing browser settings
• deleting old email
• installing more RAM in the machine

14. A computer technician performed a number of actions to correct a problem. Some actions did not solve the problem, but eventually a solution was found. What should be documented?

• everything that was done to try to solve the problem
• only the solution, because this solved the problem
• only the failed attempts, so that future technicians will know what not to try
• a description of the problem and solution

15. What are two operating systems that are found on mobile devices? (Choose two.)

• Android
• iOS
• Google
• Apple
• MobileOS

16. A user updates a device driver and reboots the system. When the user successfully logs in after the reboot, the OS displays a blue screen and crashes. The user presses the F8 key on reboot and tries to log in using the Last Known Good Configuration but gets the same result. Why will the Last Known Good Configuration not work?

• The Last Known Good Configuration is overwritten with the current one on successful login.
• The boot.ini file is corrupt.
• The user failed to run chkdsk prior to logging in.
• The user failed to save the CMOS settings on reboot.

17. A technician has been asked to reinstall the OS on a computer that has a corrupted operating system. The technician inserts the installation media in the optical drive. What would be the most likely action the technician should perform next?

• Change the boot sequence in the BIOS.
• Change the BIOS password.
• Flash the BIOS for a firmware upgrade.
• Change clock speeds in the BIOS.

18. A technician is troubleshooting a computer that fails to print. The technician suspects that the printer driver may be outdated, proceeds to download the latest driver, and installs it. The technician attempts to print, but the problem persists. What is the next action that the technician should take?

• Develop a new theory.
• Test the theory.
• Establish a plan of action.
• Identify the problem.

19. A technician is troubleshooting a printer that fails to print because of constant paper jams. What should the technician try first?

• Clean the printer.
• Secure printer cables.
• Configure the printer port.
• Check for bent pins on the printer cable.

20. A technician is planning an operating system upgrade for a user system that is currently running Windows Vista. Because the BitLocker feature embedded in the Windows Vista OS is required, there is a request that this feature be available when the new operating system is installed. Which version or versions of Windows 7 would support this feature?

• Windows 7 Ultimate
• Windows 7 Ultimate and Professional
• Windows 7 Ultimate and Professional and Home Premium
• Windows 7 Ultimate and Professional and Home Premium and Starter

21. What is different about the default location for user files in Windows Vista compared to Windows XP?

• The default location for user files in Windows Vista is within a user-specific subfolder in the Users folder.
• The first time a user logs into any version of Windows Vista, the user must select the default folder for user files.
• During the installation process, the installer selects the folder from which subfolders are created for every user to store user-specific documents.
• The default location is in the Documents and Settings folder. From there a subfolder with the user name is created when a user account is made. Then another subfolder called My Documents is created.

22. Which Windows feature enables a technician at company headquarters to view the screen and control the mouse and keyboard of a computer in a branch office?

• System Desktop
• System Tools
• Remote Desktop
• Services

23. Which Windows hard drive partition is referred to as the C: drive?

• the first volume partition
• the first primary partition
• the first extended partition
• the first logical partition

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which utility has the IT department started on each computer?

ITE Final Exam Answer 001 (v5.02, 2015)

• Chkdsk
• Computer Management
• Defragment
• Scandisk

25. A technician notices that a data floppy disk is in the floppy disk drive of a computer when it is powered on. Which error message could this potentially cause?

• device / service failed to start
• floppy disk corrupted
• invalid system disk
• corrupted driver

26. A user believes that a data file on a Windows XP computer has been corrupted. Which utility can provide the best information about the data file?

• Defrag
• Chkdsk
• Msconfig
• Regedit

27. Engineers are designing a security scheme to allow only authorized persons to access the facilities of a national bank. Which security control measure provides the most secure solution for employee identification?

• card keys
• security guards
• security key fobs
• biometric devices

28. Engineers are designing a security scheme to allow only authorized persons to access the facilities of a national bank. Which security control measure provides the most secure solution for employee identification?

• card keys
• security guards
• security key fobs
• biometric devices

29. What type of security attack is being launched when a hacker calls a company to obtain computer login information and pretends to be an employee?

• spyware
• phishing
• adware
• Trojan
• social engineering

30. What characterizes a DDoS attack?

• Many hosts participate in a coordinated attack.
• Infected computers are called daemons.
• It is easy to identify the source of the attack.
• All hosts must be in the same geographic area.

31. What guideline should be followed when establishing a password security policy?

• Passwords should be physically stored in a convenient location.
• Passwords should contain mainly numbers for better encryption.
• The system administrator should assign passwords to the users.
• Lockout policies should be avoided in order to increase user access.
• An expiration period should be established so that passwords frequently change.

32. After logging into a computer, a user can view files but is unable to download the files. What action can the administrator take to allow the user to download the files while preventing deletion of the files?

• Set the folder permissions to Read.
• Set the file permissions to Modify.
• Set the file permissions to Full Control
• Set the file permissions to Read and Execute.

33. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node is attached to every other node on the network?

• bus
• hierarchical
• mesh
• ring
• star

34. A network administrator has finished migrating from a peer-to-peer network to a new client-server network configuration. What are two advantages of the new configuration? (Choose two.)

• The total cost of the new solution is considerably lower.
• Data is more secure in the event of hardware failures.
• Individual users are in control of their own computers and network resources.
• Data resources and access are centrally controlled.
• Personnel costs are lower because a dedicated network administrator is no longer necessary.

35. A student enables file sharing on a laptop so that a friend can access music files. Which type of service is being configured?

• FTP
• peer-to-peer
• Telnet
• DHCP
• DNS

36. The current IP configuration of a small company is done manually and is time-consuming. Because of increased network growth, a technician needs a simpler way for IP configuration of workstations. Which service would simplify the workstation IP configuration task?

• APIPA
• DHCP
• DIPS
• ICMP

37. A computer can access devices on the same network but cannot access devices on other networks. What is the probable cause of this problem?

• The cable is not connected properly to the NIC.
• The computer has an invalid IP address.
• The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
• The computer has an invalid default gateway address.

38. What is the reason for disabling SSID broadcasting and changing the default SSID on a wireless access point?

• Anyone with the default SSID can gain access to the access point and change the configuration.
• Disabling SSID broadcasting frees up radio frequency bandwidth and increases the data throughput of the access point.
• The access point stops broadcasting its own MAC address, thus preventing unauthorized wireless clients from connecting to the network.
• Wireless clients must then have the SSID manually configured to connect to the wireless network.

39. A computer has been assigned an IP address of 169.254.33.16. What command could be used to force the computer to request an IP address again?

• ipconfig /release
• net computer
• nslookup
• tracert

40. After confirming the removal of a virus from a computer, how should the technician ensure and verify the full functionality of the system?

• Check for the latest OS patches and updates.
• Document the problem and the procedures performed to solve it.
• Talk with the user to determine the cause of the problem.
• Gather information from a number of sources to clearly identify the problem.

41. A user wants to upgrade components in a laptop to improve performance. Which two components can be replaced by the user? (Choose two.)

• RAM
• battery
• motherboard
• CPU
• LCD display

42. A technician uses the shrink volume feature of the disk management utility and splits the partition. What must the technician do next in order to make use of the new space?

• Partition the unallocated space.
• Format the existing partition.
• Delete all partitions and reinitialize the disk.
• Convert the unallocated space into a dynamic disk.

43. A student laptop is running slowly, and the student suspects rogue computers are accessing the laptop. Which control panel feature is used in Windows Vista to verify the firewall setting?

• Network and Sharing Center
• Programs
• Security Center
• System and Maintenance

44. How does MAC address filtering enable wireless network security at the device level?

• Device MAC addresses are encrypted before being transmitted over the network.
• MAC address mutual authentication is enabled between the wireless client and the network.
• Use is made of a lightweight access point architecture to control wireless device network access.
• The unique MAC address of each wireless device is filtered and only authorized addresses are allowed network access.

45. Rogue antivirus warning windows have been reported as appearing on computers in a company. The computer systems administrator is drafting a notice to all employees explaining how to deal with this problem. In addition to a description of the problem and the reporting procedure, which two instructions should also be included in the notice? (Choose two.)

• Do not click anywhere in the warning window.
• If the window has to be closed, then press Alt + F4.
• Close the window by clicking the cross in the top right corner.
• Click the Cancel button in the window to close the window.
• Update the antimalware software on the computer.

46. The corporate security policy states that all remote connections use only secure tunnels for data communications. Which encryption technique secures data traveling across the public Internet as if it were traveling across the corporate LAN?

• MD5
• VPN
• WEP
• WPA

47. Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

• FTP
• HTTP
• NetBEUI
• POP
• SSH

48. What are two network requirements necessary to establish a VPN connection between a remote computer and a private company LAN? (Choose two.)

• low latency network connection
• secure web server
• Internet access
• PSTN access
• VPN client

49. Which statement is true about DDR2 and DDR3 RAM modules?

• They operate at the same voltage.
• They have a different number of contact pins.
• They use different types of DIMM slots on the motherboard.
• They require the same operating frequency on the front side bus.

50. A customer needs additional storage space on an older computer. What will the technician look at in the computer to determine if an additional hard drive can be added?

• adequate RAM
• an open PCI/PCIe expansion slot
• an available PATA/SATA connection
• BIOS version
• the heat that is generated and air flow requirements

51. A computer user has a USB 3.0 thumb drive. What USB port or ports could be used to attach the drive to the PC?

• only a directly connected USB 3.0 computer port
• only a USB 3.0 computer port or a port on a USB 3.0 hub
• only a USB 2.0 or 3.0 port on the computer or on a hub
• any USB 1.1, 2.0, or 3.0 port

52. Which step is critical in selecting and installing multiple cooling fans for a PC case?

• Make sure they are the same make and model.
• Make sure they run at the same speed.
• Make sure they provide the same amount of air flow.
• Make sure they are mounted in correct air flow directions.

53. A customer needs to purchase a new power supply for a computer. What must be considered when selecting an appropriate power supply?

• The power supply converts DC to AC.
• The power supply has sufficient wattage to support all components inside the computer.
• The power supply provides at least 800 V.
• The power supply must have both a P-8 and P-9 connector.

54. Refer to the exhibit. To what input device would the cables attach?

ITE Final Exam Answer 002 (v5.02, 2015)

• keyboard/mouse combo device
• KVM switch
• video distribution center
• sound system

55. Which motherboard feature controls the amount of data that a CPU transfers at one time?

• pin grid array
• front side bus
• MMX instructions
• read-only memory

56. Which is the correct procedure to put out a fire with a fire extinguisher after the pin is pulled?

• Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
• Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
• Aim directly at the center of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from side to side.
• Aim at the base of the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the base to the top of the flame.
• Aim just above the flame, squeeze the lever, and sweep from the top to the base of the flame.

57. A technician is explaining the differences between inkjet printers and laser printers to a customer. Which two comparisons should the technician make? (Choose two.)

• Inkjet printers are less expensive as an initial purchase than laser printers.
• A laser printer is significantly slower than an inkjet printer.
• Both laser and inkjet printers produce poor quality images.
• The laser printer output is dry after printing, but an inkjet printer may still have wet ink on the paper after printing.
• Inkjet printers use plain paper to make economical prints, but laser printers require more expensive thermal paper.

58. A customer is angry and calls to complain that the service scheduled on the computer took longer than expected. The technician reviews the work order and notices that the service was performed by a new employee. How should the technician respond?

• Verify that the computer is working properly now.
• Listen to the complaint and then apologize for any inconvenience caused by the lengthy service on the computer.
• Explain that the repair technician sent to perform the service is inexperienced.
• Put the customer on hold until a supervisor is available.

59. Once a technician understands a customer complaint, it is common to ask closed-ended questions. Which question is a close-ended one?

• What happened before the error occurred?
• Is this the first time the error occurred?
• What happened after the error occurred?
• What error messages were displayed when the error occurred?

60. Which two items would be part of a laptop preventive maintenance kit? (Choose two.)

• compressed air
• plastic scribe
• soft cloth
• antistatic wrist strap
• flat-head screwdriver

61. In which circumstance should a level one technician initiate an escalated work order?

• when a customer appears to be very knowledgeable
• when a customer demands talking to a particular technician
• when a problem requires expertise from another technician
• when the technician cannot understand the problem as explained by the customer

62. In what circumstance would plenum-rated twisted-pair computer network cabling be required?

• when the required cable run is more than 330 feet in length
• when the cable run must be installed inside a ceiling
• when the cable run connects to the MDF
• when the cabling is installed at a punchdown block in a wiring closet

63. Which three actions should be part of a regular computer preventive maintenance plan? (Choose three.)

• removing dust from fan intakes, the power supply, and peripherals
• installing appropriate security updates
• removing unused or unwanted programs
• changing browser settings
• deleting old email
• installing more RAM in the machine

64. A technician is attempting to create virtual machines on a PC but wants to ensure that the physical system resources used by the virtual machines are directly managed by them and not by the host operating system. How can the technician accomplish this?

• Set up the virtual machines using a native hypervisor.
• Set up the virtual machines using a hosted hypervisor.
• Set up the virtual machines as Windows Virtual PCs
• Limit the amount of paged RAM.
• Disable hyperthreading in the BIOS.

65. Which feature of a mobile device touchscreen will allow a user to zoom in displayed items such as maps and photographs?

• long touch
• double touch
• pinch
• slide

66. A user downloads a widget onto his Android phone but is puzzled to see that when the widget is touched an app is launched. What is a possible cause?

• The user has downloaded a virus.
• The widget is corrupt.
• The security settings of the Android OS have been compromised.
• The widget is associated with the app and this is the normal behavior.

67. After solving a problem on a computer, a technician checks the event log to ensure that there are no new error messages. At which step of the troubleshooting process is this action taking place?

• Verify the solution and full system functionality.
• Document the findings.
• Establish a theory of probable cause.
• Determine an exact cause.

68. A technician has just installed a new laser printer, but is unable to print a test page. What is the most likely cause for this?

• The installed printer driver is the wrong one.
• The printer memory is not enough to handle the printing job.
• The size of the paper is incorrect.
• The page counter needs to be reset.

69. A user reports that some printing jobs are not being printed. The technician checks and notices that the jobs are stuck in the printing queue. What action should the technician take to solve the problem?

• Cancel the job that displays the error that is preventing the other jobs from being printed.
• Reinstall the printer driver.
• Unplug the data cable from the printer and plug it in again.
• Plug the printer to a voltage regulator.

70. A technician has installed a third party utility that is used to manage a Windows XP computer. However, the utility is unable to startup automatically whenever the computer is started. What can the technician do to resolve this problem?

• Uninstall the program and then choose Add New Programs in the Add or Remove Programs utility to install the application.
• Use the Add or Remove Programs utility to set program access and defaults.
• Change the startup type for the utility to Automatic in Services.
• Set the application registry key value to one.

71. A technician is asked to set up one hard drive that will support two operating systems and will store data files in three separate drive locations. Which partition settings will support these requirements?

• 1 primary, 3 active, 1 extended, 2 logical
• 2 logical, 2 active, 3 extended
• 2 primary, 1 active, 1 extended, 3 logical
• 3 primary, 1 active, 2 extended

72. For security reasons a network administrator needs to ensure that local computers cannot ping each other. Which settings can accomplish this task?

• smartcard settings
• firewall settings
• MAC address settings
• file system settings

73. An administrator receives an email message from what appears to be the company bank. The email asks for account information. The administrator determines the email is not from the bank. What type of security threat has the administrator detected?

• spyware
• grayware
• Trojan
• worm
• phishing

74. Which two aspects of a computer can be protected by setting the BIOS password? (Choose two.)

• network address assignment method
• hard drive settings
• operating system login
• operating system booting
• file system management
• firewall settings

75. Which two aspects of a computer can be protected by setting the BIOS password? (Choose two.)

• network address assignment method
• hard drive settings
• operating system login
• operating system booting
• file system management
• firewall settings

76. Which two password control policies should an organization implement to ensure strong passwords? (Choose two.)

• Passwords should be set to expire every 60 days.
• Passwords should contain no more than eight characters.
• Passwords must contain encrypted characters.
• Passwords should contain letters and numbers.
• Passwords should contain only capital letters.

77. Which open standards-based wireless security mode supports the highest level of security?

• WEP
• WPA2
• WPA
• LEAP

78. In a networking class, the instructor tells the students to ping the other computers in the classroom from the command prompt. Why do all pings in the class fail?

• A virus is on the classroom computers.
• The computers are on different networks.
• The Windows firewall is blocking the ping.
• Port 25 is blocked and preventing the echo request from being transmitted.

79. A new technician has joined the IT team and is about to service a heavy printer. Which two precautions should be taken to avoid any injury when transporting the heavy printer to the service area? (Choose two.)

• Avoid lifting the equipment using the strength in your back.
• Lift the equipment using the strength in your legs and knees.
• Avoid bending your knees when lifting the printer.
• Bend your back to pick the printer up.
• Avoid lifting the printer close to your body.

80. What can help control the effect of RFI on a wireless LAN?

• Ensure the humidity and temperature levels are set as low as possible.
• Ensure the number of wireless NICs exceeds the number of wireless phones.
• Ensure the wireless network is on a different frequency than the offending source.
• Ensure each wireless NIC is configured to operate at different frequencies from all other wireless NICs.

81. The current IP configuration of a small company is done manually and is time-consuming. Because of increased network growth, a technician needs a simpler way for IP configuration of workstations. Which service would simplify the workstation IP configuration task?

• APIPA
• DHCP
• DIPS
• ICMP

82. What are the four layers in the TCP/IP reference model?

• HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
• TCP, IP, Ethernet, IEEE
• application, transport, internet, network access
• application, presentation, session, transport
• physical, data link, network, transport

83. A technician is to document the current configurations of all network devices in a college, including those in off-site buildings. Which protocol would be best to use to securely access the network devices?

• FTP
• HTTP
• SSH
• Telnet

84. A newly hired technician is attaching a computer to the network. Upon examining the network configuration, the technician recognizes that the computer is configured with a protocol stack that is used for Internet communication. What protocol stack is installed on the computer?

• AppleTalk
• IPX/SPX
• NetBEUI
• TCP/IP

85. After the administrator manually configures the correct SSID on a new laptop, the computer is still unable to connect to the wireless LAN. Which additional action should the administrator take to resolve this problem?

• Modify the group account of the user to include all file permissions.
• Reboot the wireless access point.
• Rename the laptop and reset the user password on the network.
• Verify that the MAC address for the laptop is in the MAC address filter table.

86. An audit reveals company files that are stored in the personal server space of a former employee have been modified after the employee left the company. What should be done to prevent further unauthorized access to these files, while still allowing the company to use them?

• Disable the account of the former employee.
• Delete the account of the former employee.
• Delete the files from the server.
• Change the account to a Guest account.

87. How is DSL able to carry telephone and data signals at the same time?

• Each signal uses a different frequency.
• Each connection is dialed separately.
• DSL uses low frequency transmissions.
• DSL uses digital signals to carry both the telephone and data traffic.

88. A company has a preventive maintenance policy that requires every computer have a new restore point created every six months. For computers using the Windows 7 operating system, how can a technician create the restore point?

• From the CLI enter the command restore /cn.
• Choose Start > Control Panel > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore > Create a restore point.
• Choose Start > All Programs > Accessories > System Tools > System Restore > Next.
• Right-click My Computer and then choose Properties > Restore > Create Restore Point.

89. Which are two potential risks to a mobile device that could result from rooting or jailbreaking the device? (Choose two.)?

• A custom OS enables user access to the root directory.
• A custom OS may not properly create or maintain sandboxing features.
• The user interface may be extensively customized.
• The device performance may be improved.
• Some features initially disabled by a carrier may be enabled.

90. Which three attributes of NTFS make it a better file system than FAT32? (Choose three.)

• file and folder permission options
• file size per volume of 4.17 million
• journaling
• large cluster size
• encryption at the file and folder level
• maximum individual file size of 4 GB

91. Which memory module used to hold instructions for booting a PC and loading the OS, but is still used on adapters even though the memory contents cannot be changed?

• RAM
• ROM
• cache
• main memory

92. Why do laptop computers use CPU throttling techniques?

• to enhance the performance of the CPU
• to reduce the heat that the CPU may generate
• to ensure the CPU is running at its peak speed
• to conserve the battery life by reducing the bus speed between the CPU and RAM

93. A technician is upgrading an ATX motherboard with another ATX motherboard. Which component might be affected by this and need to be upgraded and bought as an additional purchase?

• BIOS
• chipset
• CMOS battery
• CPU
• PCIe adapter

94. A student wishes to buy a computer suitable for game playing. What CPU speed would be appropriate for game playing?

• 44.1 MHz
• 100 MB/s
• 3 GHz
• 1 TB

95. What are the terms refresh rate, interlace, and aspect ratio related to?

• hard drive efficiency
• audio signal
• scanner output
• image quality of a monitor

96. Which two interface types make it possible to attach different external components to laptops and desktops without powering the computer off? (Choose two.)

• PS/2
• FireWire
• PCI
• PCIe
• USB

Read more ...