1. A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.*
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
2. Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
ability to build a routing table*
ability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
ability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
ability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
3. What are three access layer switch features that are considered when designing a network? (Choose three.)
broadcast traffic containment
failover capability
forwarding rate*
port density*
Power over Ethernet*
speed of convergence
4. In a large enterprise network, which two functions are performed by routers at the distribution layer? (Choose two.)
connect remote networks*
provide Power over Ethernet to devices
connect users to the network
provide data traffic security*
provide a high-speed network backbone
5. A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
4096
32768
61440*
65535
6. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be the root bridge after the election process is complete?
S1
S2*
S3
S4
7. Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?
alternate, root, designated, root
designated, root, alternate, root
alternate, designated, root, root*
designated, alternate, root, root
8. A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
Any switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
Any trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
Any switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.*
Any switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
9. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring PVST+ for the three switches. What will be a result of entering these commands?
S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 0.
S2 will set the priority value for VLAN 10 to 24576.
S3 will set the priority value for VLAN 30 to 8192.*
S1 will set the priority value for VLAN 20 to 24596.
10. Refer to the exhibit. Which destination MAC address is used when frames are sent from the workstation to the default gateway?
MAC address of the forwarding router
MAC addresses of both the forwarding and standby routers
MAC address of the standby router
MAC address of the virtual router*
11. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?
GLBP allows load balancing between routers.*
It is nonproprietary.
It uses a virtual router master.
It works together with VRRP.
12. A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
HSRP uses active and standby routers.*
It uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
It allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
HSRP is nonproprietary.
13. Which function is provided by EtherChannel?
spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links
dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots
enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link
creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches*
14. Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
SW1: on
SW2: on*
SW1: desirable
SW2: desirable
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
trunking enabled on both switches
SW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches
SW1: passive
SW2: active
15. Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)
on*
desirable
active
auto*
passive
16. What are two requirements to be able to configure an EtherChannel between two switches? (Choose two.)
The interfaces that are involved need to be contiguous on the switch.
All the interfaces need to work at the same speed.*
All the interfaces need to be working in the same duplex mode.*
All interfaces need to be assigned to different VLANs.
Different allowed ranges of VLANs must exist on each end.
17. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the output? (Choose two.)
The EtherChannel is down.*
The port channel ID is 2.*
The port channel is a Layer 3 channel.
The bundle is fully operational.
The load-balancing method used is source port to destination port.
18. What two conditions have to be met in order to form a cluster that includes 5 access points? (Choose two.)
Clustering mode must be enabled on the APs.*
At least two controllers are needed to form the cluster.
The APs have to be connected on the same network segment.*
The APs must all be configured to use different radio modes.
The APs must use different cluster names.
19. A remote classroom can successfully access video-intensive streaming lectures via wired computers. However, when an 802.11n wireless access point is installed and used with 25 wireless laptops to access the same lectures, poor audio and video quality is experienced. Which wireless solution would improve the performance for the laptops?
Decrease the power of the wireless transmitter.
Add another access point.*
Upgrade the access point to one that can route.
Adjust the wireless NICs in the laptops to operate at 10GHz to be compatible with 802.11n.
20. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?
ad hoc mode*
hotspot
infrastructure mode
mixed mode
21. What are the two methods that are used by a wireless NIC to discover an AP? (Choose two.)
sending an ARP request
delivering a broadcast frame
transmitting a probe request*
initiating a three-way handshake
receiving a broadcast beacon frame*
22. At a local college, students are allowed to connect to the wireless network without using a password. Which mode is the access point using?
network
open*
passive
shared-key
23. Which wireless encryption method is the most secure?
WPA
WEP
WPA2 with TKIP
WPA2 with AES*
24. Users on an IEEE 801.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?
Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.*
Change the authentication method on the AP.
Switch to an 802.11g AP.
Set the AP to mixed mode.
25. A network engineer is implementing security on all company routers. Which two commands must be issued to force authentication via the password 1C34dE for all OSPF-enabled interfaces in the backbone area of the company network? (Choose two.)
ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 1C34dE*
area 1 authentication message-digest
username OSPF password 1C34dE
enable password 1C34dE
area 0 authentication message-digest*
26. Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?
R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet.
The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet.
R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the 172.16.100.0 network.*
R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command.
27. What are two methods to make the OSPF routing protocol more secure? (Choose two.)
Use only OSPFv3.
Use MD5 authentication.*
Use the enable secret command.
When feasible, create a VPN tunnel between each OSPF neighbor adjacency.
Use the passive-interface command on LAN interfaces that are connected only to end-user devices.*
28. A network engineer is troubleshooting a single-area OSPFv3 implementation across routers R1, R2, and R3. During the verification of the implementation, it is noted that the routing tables on R1 and R2 do not include the entry for a remote LAN on R3. Examination of R3 shows the following:
1.that all interfaces have correct addressing
2.that the routing process has been globally configured
3.that correct router adjacencies have formed
What additional action taken on R3 could solve the problem?
Enable the OSPFv3 routing process on the interface connected to the remote LAN.*
Use the network command to configure the LAN network under the global routing process.
Force DR/BDR elections to occur where required.
Restart the OPSFv3 routing process.
29. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting missing OSPFv3 routes on a router. What is the cause of the problem based on the command output?
There is a problem with the OSPFv3 adjacency between the local router and the router that is using the neighbor ID 2.2.2.2.*
The local router has formed complete neighbor adjacencies, but must be in a 2WAY state for the router databases to be fully synchronized.
The dead time must be higher than 30 for all routers to form neighbor adjacencies.
The neighbor IDs are incorrect. The interfaces must use only IPv6 addresses to ensure fully synchronized routing databases.
30. When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
when the router has interfaces in different areas*
when the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
when the router has the highest router ID
when the router has an OSPF priority of 0
31. Which type of OSPF LSA represents an external route and is propagated across the entire OSPF domain?
type 1
type 2
type 3
type 4
type 5*
32. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded about network 192.168.1.0 in the R2 routing table?
This network has been learned from an internal router within the same area.
This network was learned through summary LSAs from an ABR.*
This network is directly connected to the interface GigabitEthernet0/0.
This network should be used to forward traffic toward external networks.
33. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)
ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.*
ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.*
Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.
Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
34. Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?
There are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.*
The OSPF routing process is inactive.
The link to the new area is down.
The router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
35. When are EIGRP update packets sent?
only when necessary*
when learned routes age out
every 5 seconds via multicast
every 30 seconds via broadcast
36. Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)
The packets are sent in response to hello packets.
The packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
The packets are sent as unicast.*
The packets require confirmation.
The packets are unreliable.*
37. Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63*
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 255.255.255.248
B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 255.255.255.192
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255
38. An administrator issues the router eigrp 100 command on a router. What is the number 100 used for?
as the autonomous system number*
as the number of neighbors supported by this router
as the length of time this router will wait to hear hello packets from a neighbor
as the maximum bandwidth of the fastest interface on the router
39. A network administrator wants to verify the default delay values for the interfaces on an EIGRP-enabled router. Which command will display these values?
show ip protocols
show running-config
show interfaces*
show ip route
40. Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)
delay*
MTU
reliability
transmit and receive load
bandwidth*
41. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)
There is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.*
The network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
The reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
The neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.*
Router R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
42. When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?
when the EIGRP domain is converged
when there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
when there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
when the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available*
43. Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
the 32-bit router ID
the IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
the all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
the interface IPv6 link-local address*
44. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.*
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
45. Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
10.0.0.0/8*
10.1.0.0/16
10.1.0.0/28
10.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28
46. By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?
2
4*
16
32
47. When a Cisco router is configured with fast-switching, how are packets distributed over equal-cost paths?
on a per-packet basis
on a per-interface basis
on a per-path-load basis
on a per-destination basis*
48. Refer to the exhibit. Router CiscoVille has been partially configured for EIGRP authentication. What is missing that would allow successful authentication between EIGRP neighbors?
The interfaces that will use EIGRP authentication must be specified.
A username and password must be configured.
The keychain for EIGRP authentication must be configured on the interfaces.*
The CiscoVille router requires a second keychain to function correctly when using two interfaces for EIGRP authentication.
49. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
when a network contains discontiguous network addresses*
when a router has less than five active interfaces
when a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
50. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are directly connected via their serial interfaces and are both running the EIGRP routing protocol. R1 and R2 can ping the directly connected serial interface of their neighbor, but they cannot form an EIGRP neighbor adjacency.
What action should be taken to solve this problem?
Enable the serial interfaces of both routers.
Configure EIGRP to send periodic updates.
Configure the same hello interval between the routers.
Configure both routers with the same EIGRP process ID.*
51. Which two conditions should the network administrator verify before attempting to upgrade a Cisco IOS image using a TFTP server? (Choose two.)
Verify the name of the TFTP server using the show hosts command.
Verify that the TFTP server is running using the tftpdnld command.
Verify that the checksum for the image is valid using the show version command.
Verify connectivity between the router and TFTP server using the ping command.*
Verify that there is enough flash memory for the new Cisco IOS image using the show flash command.*
52. Which requirement should be checked before a network administrator performs an IOS image upgrade on a router?
The FTP server is operational.
The old IOS image file has been deleted.
There is sufficient space in flash memory.*
The desired IOS image file has been downloaded to the router.
53. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is attempting to upgrade the IOS system image on a Cisco 2901 router. After the new image has been downloaded and copied to the TFTP server, what command should be issued on the router before the IOS system image is upgraded on the router?
show license all
ping 10.10.10.1
copy tftp: flash0:
ping 10.10.10.2*
54. What is the purpose of the Cisco PAK?
It is a key for enabling an IOS feature set.*
It is a proprietary encryption algorithm.
It is a compression file type used when installing IOS 15 or an IOS upgrade.
It is a way to compress an existing IOS so that a newer IOS version can be co-installed on a router.
55. Which Cisco IOS Software Release 15.0 technology pack is shipped with a permanent license on all Cisco ISR G2 devices?
IPBase*
DATA
Unified Communications
Security
56. A network administrator issues the command R1(config)# license boot module c1900 technology-package securityk9 on a router. What is the effect of this command?
The IOS will prompt the user to reboot the router.
The features in the Security package are available immediately.
The IOS will prompt the user to provide a UDI in order to activate the license.
The Evaluation Right-To-Use license for the Security technology package is activated.*
57. What two license states would be expected on a new Cisco router once the license has been activated? (Choose two.)
License Type: ipbasek9
License Type: Permanent*
License Type: Temporary
License State: Active, In Use*
License State: Active, Registered
License State: On
58. Fill in the blank.
The __backbone__ area interconnects with all other OSPF area types.
59. Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)
feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 => 660110
new successor to network 192.168.1.0 => 192.168.3.1
destination network => 192.168.11.64
60. Match the CLI command prompt with the command or response entered when backing up a Release 15 IOS image to an IPv6 TFTP server. (Not all options are used.)
RouterA# -> copy flash0:tftp:
Source Filename? -> C1900-universalk9-m.SPA.152-4.M3.bin
Address or name of remote host ->2001:DB8:CAFE:100::9
from http://www.ccna5.net/
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